Nursing

Expenditures On Prison Treatment
Expenditures On Prison Treatment
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“In Light Of The Budgetary Pressures And Constraints Faced By All Levels Of Government, How Would You Justify Increased Expenditures On Prison Treatment And Rehabilitation Programs To The Tax-Paying Public?
Format: Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be a minimum of one (1) single-spaced page to a maximum of two (2) pages in length. This assignment must be a neat, professional presentation. Proper punctuation, spelling, and usage of grammar are imperative.
Nurses and other health care professionals are often interested in assessing patient satisfaction with health care services. Imagine that you are a nurse working in a suburban primary care setting that serves 10,000 patients annually. Your organization is very interested in understanding the patient’s point of view to help determine areas of care that can be improved. With this focus in mind, consider how you would create a survey to assess patient satisfaction with the services your organization provides. You may wish to consider variables such as the ease of accessing care, patient wait time, friendliness of the staff, or the likelihood that a patient would recommend your organization to others.
In Light Of The Budgetary Pressures And Constraints Faced By All Levels Of Government, How Would You Justify Increased Expenditures On Prison Treatment And Rehabilitation Programs To The Tax-Paying Public?
Format: Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be a minimum of one (1) single-spaced page to a maximum of two (2) pages in length. This assignment must be a neat, professional presentation. Proper punctuation, spelling, and usage of grammar are imperative.
Nurses and other health care professionals are often interested in assessing patient satisfaction with health care services. Imagine that you are a nurse working in a suburban primary care setting that serves 10,000 patients annually. Your organization is very interested in understanding the patient’s point of view to help determine areas of care that can be improved. With this focus in mind, consider how you would create a survey to assess patient satisfaction with the services your organization provides. You may wish to consider variables such as the ease of accessing care, patient wait time, friendliness of the staff, or the likelihood that a patient would recommend your organization to others.

Discussion: Dalia’s Behavior
Discussion: Dalia’s Behavior
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Argumentative behavior, engagement in physical altercations, and evidence of mood swings can all indicate that an adolescent is experiencing anger and depression. Self-harming can surface in adolescents, too, as they experience difficult emotions. Discussion: Dalia’s Behavior
For this Discussion, read the case study of Dalia and consider what you, as her social worker, would do if you observed self-harm indicators. Discussion: Dalia’s Behavior
Post a brief explanation of self-harming behaviors that Dalia is exhibiting.
Describe theoretical approaches and practical skills you would employ in working with Dalia.
How might familial relationships result in Dalia’s self-harming behavior?
References (use at least 2)
Moorey, S. (2010). Managing the unmanageable: Cognitive behaviour therapy for deliberate self-harm. Psychoanalytic Psychotherapy, 24(2), 135–149.
Plummer, S.-B., Makris, S., & Brocksen S. M. (Eds.). (2014). Social work case studies: Foundation year. Baltimore, MD: Laureate International Universities Publishing. [Vital Source e-reader].
Working With Children and Adolescents: The Case of Dalia
Working With Children and Adolescents: The Case of Dalia
Dalia is a 14-year-old, biracial female of African and Irish American descent who resides with her parents in a middle-class suburb. She is the youngest of three children and is currently the only child remaining in the home. Dalia’s parents have been married for 25 years. Dalia’s father works in the creative arts field with a nontraditional work schedule that has him gone overnight and sleeping late into the morning. Dalia’s mother is an executive who works long hours. Dalia was diagnosed with sickle cell anemia in early childhood and was hospitalized multiple times. At present, Dalia’s health is stable with the last serious episode occurring 2 years ago.
Dalia’s parents reported that until middle school, Dalia was an easygoing, good-natured youngster who enjoyed singing and participating in activities with her peers and family. Dalia denied any problems with drugs or alcohol but admitted to drinking with friends. Dalia described her family relationships as tense, stating, “My dad lets me do what I want” and “My mother is always trying to control me.” Dalia described her relationship with her older brother, who lives in another state, as “cool,” and her relationship with her older sister, a college sophomore, as “not cool.”
Dalia’s parents sought out counseling services for behavioral issues on the recommendation of her school. The issues included argumentative behavior with authority figures, physical altercations with peers, poor concentration in class, irritable mood, verbal combativeness when confronted, truancy, and highly sexualized behavior with male peers. At home, Dalia had become more argumentative and physically threatening. Her parents had discovered that she and her friends drank alcohol in their home. Dalia’s parents also reported that she was up most of the night and slept most of the day. They also reported that her mood was highly irritable and that she was extremely impulsive. She had no interest in getting involved with any extracurricular activities, stating that those things are “corny and boring.”
In the first meeting, Dalia and her mother both appeared agitated with each other and became argumentative when going through the intake information. Dalia quickly told me that she was not planning to talk about anything because this meeting was her parents’ idea. She stated, “I don’t have any problems, my parents do.” Soon into this first visit, Dalia blurted out that her mother was upset with her because she had just shown her a tattoo she had had done recently, purchased by using a fake ID. I acknowledged her news and asked if this was the way that she usually shared important information with her mother. Dalia shrugged and stated, “I don’t know. I figure I better her tell her now before she gets too busy.”
I asked both Dalia and her mother what their expectations were for counseling and what each would like to get from these visits. Dalia’s mother seemed surprised and stated, “This is for her. She better change her attitude and start to focus on school.” I explained that often it is helpful to have sessions both individually and with family members. I pointed out that because family issues were identified it might be productive to address them together. Dalia’s mother agreed to attend some meetings but also stated that her time was limited. I was told that Dalia’s father would not be able to join us because he was never available at that time.
Dalia and I began sessions alone, and her mother joined us for the second half. During the family sessions, we addressed the communication breakdown between Dalia and her mother and Dalia’s at-risk behaviors. Individual sessions were used to address her impulsive behavior and self-esteem issues.
In individual sessions, Dalia talked about how the family had changed since her sister left for college. She said her parents stopped being present and available once her sister went away to school. She said she spent more time on her own and her behavior was under more scrutiny. Dalia also talked about her sister, describing her as an excellent student and very popular. She said her teachers in middle school would often compare Dalia to her sister, making her feel unsuccessful in comparison. During a family portion of a session, Dalia’s mother initially disagreed with Dalia’s point of view regarding how the family had changed, stating, “She’s just trying to trick you.” I encouraged them to discuss what was different about the family dynamics now compared to when the older sister was at home. We discussed how the family had changed through the years, validating both perspectives.
In time, I was able to have Dalia’s father join us in some of the family meetings. He said he felt Dalia’s behaviors were just a stage and part of being a teenager. Dalia’s parents disagreed openly in our sessions, with each blaming the other for her behavioral issues. During these sessions, we addressed how they each may have changed as their children matured and left home and how this affected their availability to their youngest child. I helped them identify what made Dalia’s experience distinct from her siblings’ and examine what her high-risk behaviors might be in reaction to or symptomatic of in the family.
In the course of the family work, the realities of being a biracial family and raising mixed-race children were also addressed. We discussed how the parents navigated race issues during their own courtship and looked at the role of acculturation and assimilation with their children in their social environments as well as respective families of origin. Educating both parents around race and social class privilege seemed fruitful in understanding distinctions between what they and their children may have faced.
After 12 weeks it was agreed that therapy would end because Dalia would be starting high school and the family felt better equipped to address conflict. The family had made some changes with the household schedule that increased parent–child contact, and Dalia agreed to more structure in her schedule and accepted a position as a camp counselor in a local day camp for the summer. Termination addressed what was accomplished in this portion of therapy and what might be addressed in future counseling. The termination process included reviewing the strategies of conflict resolution and creating opportunities for family contact and discussion in order to reinforce those behavioral and structural changes that had led to improved communication and conflict reduction.

Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
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4. Which one of the following statements accurately represents the practice known as unbundling?
A. Combination codes are assigned separately in ICD-10-CM. B. Codes that should be grouped into one code are broken into separate codes to maximize physician reimbursement. C. ICD-10-PCS codes are broken into separate codes for congruent assignment. D. Codes listed as separate procedures are assigned individually.
5. Placing a catheter into the aorta or directly into an artery or vein is called
A. brachiocephalic manipulation. B. third order placement. C. selective catheter placement. D. nonselective catheter placement.
6. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned for a patient with acute tubule-interstitial nephritis?
A. L50.0 B. Z02.6 C. N10 D. B96.2
7. The suffix -sis means
A. inflammation. B. drooping. C. condition. D. process. Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
8. The concept of meaningful use pertains to
A. medical office protocol and document organization. B. electronic health record implementation. C. resource management in the inpatient setting. D. categorization of patient information.
9. In what CPT code range is Surgical Pathology found?
A. 88400–80499 B. 88000–80299 C. 88300–88309 D. 88515–88598
10. According to the CMS National Physician Fee Schedule, what is the conversion factor for basic life support mileage?
A. $32.4726 B. $34.5741 C. $28.8457 D. $36.0666 Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
11. A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident is taken to the hospital by ambulance and admitted to the hospital in critical care. The physician sees the patient for 74 minutes in critical care. The physician leaves to attend to other patients in the ICU and the NICU of the same hospital. Five hours later, the physician returns to the patient and continues to treat the patient in critical care for an additional 30 minutes. The patient spends a total of 104 minutes in critical care. What codes are assigned?
A. 99291, 99292 B. 99292, 99293 C. 99291, 99291 D. 99292, 99292, 99293
12. The prefix endo- means
A. beneath. B. outside of. C. adjacent to. D. within.
13. What is the CPT code for a three-view x-ray of the mandible?
A. 70200 B. 70100 C. 70150 D. 70240
14. Rules of evidence control the
A. amount of evidence that may be admitted during a civil trial. B. processes and procedures for question and answer sessions. C. documents that can be considered during jury trial. D. length of criminal court proceedings, but not civil court proceedings.
15. The ampulla, isthmus, interstitium, and fimbria are examples of
A. implantation sites of ectopic pregnancy. B. incision sites for pacemaker insertion. C. membranes in the abdomen. D. bones in the ankle.
16. Code J9165 is assigned for intravenous diethylstilbestrol diphosphate. According to the code description, what dosage was administered? Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
A. 20 mg B. 50 mg C. Up to 0.5 mg D. 250 mg
17. Members of the uniformed services, their families and survivors, and retired members and their families qualify for
A. TRICARE. B. OIG Recovery. C. Medicare. D. Medicaid. Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
18. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain. She was previously diagnosed with type I diabetes. She also complains of watery eyes, congestion, pressure in the sinuses, and difficulty breathing. Her final diagnoses are right lower quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes, acute sinusitis, and asthma. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned?
A. 99222, R18.91, E16.9, J01.91, J45.919 B. 99221, R17.41, E17.9, J01.90, J45.909 C. 99221, R10.31, E10.9, J01.90, J45.909 D. 99223, R14.31, E15.9, J01.90, J45.929
19. Under HIPAA, health care facilities must
A. follow up with patients who repeatedly miss scheduled appointments for mandatory services. B. keep records of patients who refill prescriptions more than once within a three-month timeframe. C. maintain a clean, safe working environment. D. choose a privacy officer in accordance with HIPAA policies and procedures.
20. What is the ICD-10-CM code for unspecified acute pericarditis?
A. I30.89 B. I30.9 C. I30 D. I30.79
21. What is the full code description for 25515?
A. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed B. Closed treatment of ulnar shaft fracture; without manipulation C. Closed treatment of radial shaft fracture; without manipulation D. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed, and open treatment of distal radioulnar joint dislocation (Galeazzi fracture/dislocation), includes internal fixation, when performed, includes repair of triangular fibrocartilage complex
22. Which of the following anatomical locations would contain the diaphysis?
Medical Coding and Billing Sample Certification Questions Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
A. Metatarsal B. Diaphragm C. Septum D. Tibia
23. A patient recently became eligible for health insurance through her employer. Her health insurance is considered to be an 80-20 policy. Under the terms of an 80-20 policy, the insurer pays 80 percent and the insured pays 20 percent of expenses. This 80-20 policy is an example of
A. coinsurance. B. prospective payment. C. capitation. D. case management. Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
24. The Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS) pays
A. an established rate for outpatient services in specific hospitals. B. a percentage of the national average for the same surgery performed in a different geographic location. C. 65% of the schedule C rate for all surgeries. D. subsidies to contain health care costs in rural facilities.
25. The study of disease is called
A. physiology. B. pathology. C. urology. D. neurology.
26. Superficial injuries such as abrasions or contusions are
A. not coded when associated with more severe injuries of the same site. B. queried to determine if the injuries are confined to the same site. C. coded when associated with more severe injuries of the same site. D. coded only when debridement is performed.
27. Another name for XXY syndrome is
A. Turner’s syndrome. B. Cooley’s anemia. C. Klinefelter syndrome. D. Huntington’s chorea.
28. The method that physicians use to bill for each service or visit individually rather than on a pre-paid basis is called
A. fee-for-service. B. capitation. C. pre-paid care. D. managed care.
29. A physician has a meeting with a pharmaceutical sales representative. During the course of the conversation, the physician reveals the diagnosis and past family, medical, and social history of a patient currently being treated with one of the medications that the sales representative is selling. In this situation, the doctor could be sued for
A. invasion of privacy. B. malfeasance. C. undue harm and fraud. D. malice.
30. A patient is prescribed a medication that narrows the blood vessels and raises her blood pressure. The medication is most likely a
A. tranquilizer. B. cardiogenic. C. vasoconstrictor. D. cardiotonic
31. Physicians typically refer to anatomical locations using directional terms, which are often
A. paired in opposites. B. used primarily by chiropractors. C. used to describe surgical incisions. D. referenced horizontally.
32. The study of tissue disease using macroscopic or microscopic analysis is called
A. immunology. B. histopathology. C. cytopathology. D. microbiology.
33. A physician obtains cells from the bone marrow cavity using a needle and a syringe. How would this procedure be coded?
A. 36575 B. 37328 C. 38220 D. 35092
34. What is Medicare Part D?
A. The component of Medicare Part A that covers outpatient surgeries B. Add-on coverage for prescription drugs provided through insurance companies approved by Medicare C. Supplemental coverage for war veterans and their dependents D. Add-on coverage for dental procedures
35. A female patient is seen for her annual gynecological examination. During the examination, the physician performs a test to detect cervical cancer. This test is called a/an
A. immunoassay test. B. Pap smear. C. carcinoembryonic antigen test. D. mycobacterial culture.
36. A physician is called to the intensive care unit for a patient with second-degree burns sustained on 55% of his body while cooking in the kitchen where he works. The physician sees the patient in the critical care unit for two hours, leaves the unit, and returns later the same day to provide an additional hour of critical care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes would be assigned?
A. L91.8, 99291 × 2, 99292 × 4 B. R53.81, 99291, 99293 × 5 C. Z30.09, 99293, 99294 × 2 D. T31.50, 99291, 99292 × 4
37. A change in the tissues and cells within a specific area on or in the body is called a
A. lesion. B. cyst. C. neoplasm. D. tumor.
38. Information about a patient can becan be released for research under the terms of HIPAA, only if
A. the patient signs an authorization immediately upon admission. B. the research is critical for technological development. C. the patient has authorized the release and only a limited amount of information is released. D. researchers obtain authorization from the admitting physician.
39. A patient is diagnosed with breast cancer and undergoes a partial mastectomy. What CPT code would be assigned?
A. 19305 B. 19307 C. 19304 D. 19301
40. To conform to the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which of the following safeguards must be maintained in health care facilities?
A. Immunization and injection safeguards B. Reasonable administrative, technical, and physical safeguards C. ICD-7 provisional safeguards D. Hazardous waste protection safeguards
41. A patient sustains a fracture of the femur while playing football in a nearby park. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned?
A. S72.001A B. S72.009A C. S72.003A D. S49.006A
42. According to the guidelines for medical records outlined in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), patients
A. have the right to have errors reviewed by a hospital administrator. B. have the right to correct errors in identification data only. C. have the right to have errors in their medical records corrected. D. do not have the right to have errors corrected, as the data has been previously verified by the physician.
43. Modifier -23 indicates that
A. two surgeons performed a procedure. B. a procedure was performed bilaterally. C. a physician reviewed and interpreted a radiology procedure. D. the patient received general anesthesia for a procedure that would ordinarily be performed with local or no anesthesia.
44. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) was created for the purpose of
A. streamlining claims processing and reducing paperwork through electronic transmission. B. stabilizing administrative costs and productivity. C. decreasing employee turnover and reducing the volume of new hire paperwork. D. modifying legal and ethical issues surrounding medical records retention.
45. A patient is seen in the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. It’s determined that the patient is experiencing inflammation of the pancreas, which is also called
A. pancreaticoduodonal arcade. B. pancreatitis. C. pancreatolysis. D. pancreatonia.
46. A 55-year-old patient was injured while working as a carpenter on a construction site. While framing the roof of a two-story house, he fell and hit his head. He was diagnosed with a concussion to the left side of his head, and underwent a right frontal parietal craniotomy with removal of a subdural hematoma. During the patient’s period of recovery, he was given a medication that resulted in a rash on his abdomen. The physician conducted an expanded problem focused history and exam, with straightforward medical decision making. What CPT code(s) should be assigned?
A. 99251 B. 99252 C. 99292, 99291 D. 99253
47. Taking certain steps to protect PHI from being accidentally released to individuals who don’t need to know the information is called the
A. minimum necessary standard. B. privacy management statute. C. health information guardianship guideline. D. information provision standard.
48. The main term represents the most basic aspect of a disease or condition. For example, the main term of a diagnosis involving a broken arm is
Medical Coding and Billing Sample Certification Questions
A. broken. B. break. C. fracture. D. arm.
49. Performing a daily check for viruses and malware is one of the
A. requirements of the Help Desk. B. routine aspects of software maintenance. C. sensible guidelines for Internet use in health care facilities. D. functions of HIM encoders.
50. A coder overhears a confidential statement made outside of the court, and then, when called to testify, repeats the statement as being truth. This is an example of
A. cross-examination. B. hearsay. C. speculation. D. a direct quote.
51. A patient receives two venous pressure clamps for hemodialysis. What HCPCS Level II code is assigned?
A. A4751 B. A4751 × 2 C. A4918 × 2 D. A4918
52. The process of removing tissue for histopathology is called
A. shaving. B. debridement. C. excision. D. biopsy.
53. A coder would assign modifier -53 to report
A. dental procedures. B. repeat procedures. C. anesthesia administration. D. procedures cancelled due to the patient’s condition.
54. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) allows
A. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting pretrial depositions. B. lawyer-to-lawyer mediation during trial recess. C. mediating disputes with a judge in the presence of the bailiff. D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to or after the start of litigation.
55. Code range 99231–99233 pertains to Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
A. initial hospital care. B. subsequent hospital care. C. consultation services. D. hospital discharge services.
56. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain, nausea, and intractable vomiting. Unable to pinpoint the source of the patient’s complaints, the physician decides to admit the patient to the hospital. After conducting a complete history and examination, the patient’s final diagnosis is determined to be chronic duodenal ulcer. The patient remains hospitalized for three days. The physician sees the patient on the day of discharge. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 99234, N17.9 B. 99223, I48.91 C. 99238, K26.7 D. 99291, D63.1
57. The specific guidelines that constitute a valid release of information under the HIPAA Privacy Rule are described as
A. OIG specifications. B. E/M levels. C. considerations in relation to risk management. D. core elements.
58. The suffix –centesis means
A. abnormal condition. B. calculus or stone. C. a surgical puncture for fluid removal. D. separation, breakdown, destruction.
59. The code for an ESWL would be found in the
A. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of CPT. B. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS. C. Digestive System of CPT. D. Cardiovascular System of CPT.
60. A female patient is diagnosed with breast cancer of the lower-inner quadrant of the right breast. The patient undergoes a modified radical mastectomy of the right breast in an attempt to circumvent the spread of the cancer to any secondary anatomical sites. The procedure was performed in three stages. In addition to the radical mastectomy, the physician also performed a right breast biopsy to treat the breast tumor in the lower-inner quadrant. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 19307-58-RT, 19101-59-RT, C50.311 B. 15852-58, Z48.01 C. 11602, 15240, C50.312 D. 19307-RT, 19101-RT, C50.211
61. A patient comes to the ambulatory surgery center for a fusion of the cervical spine. Prior to the beginning of the surgery, the patient suffers an allergic reaction to the anesthesia shortly after it’s administered. Because of this reaction, the surgery is not performed. What code would be assigned as the first-listed diagnosis?
A. The observation code B. The reason that the surgery was scheduled to be performed C. The allergy code D. The anesthesia administration
62. Anti-inflammatory drugs applied to the skin to relieve skin disorders are called
A. topical corticosteroids. B. antiseptics. C. keratolytics. D. astringents.
63. The _______ nerve sends visual data to the occipital lobe of the brain.
A. abducens B. trochlear C. optic D. oculomotor
64. The root word OBSTETR/O means
A. pregnancy. B. cesarean. C. midwife. D. birth.
65. The root word ENTER/O means
A. tooth. B. stomach. C. intestine. D. secretion.
66. What code would be assigned for gastropathy?
A. K29.7 B. K41.31 C. K31.9 D. K41.2
67. A patient comes to the physician’s office complaining of neck irritation. The physician examines her neck and notes that she has a 15 cm neck scar. Upon further examination, the physician notes that the neck scar requires extensive debridement and retention sutures. The physician performs a dermabrasion to treat the neck scar and then closes the complex wound with the sutures. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 13132, 13133 × 2, L90.5 B. 13132, 13133 × 3, H81.09, L92.9 C. 13133-51, 13131-79, L60.0 D. 13132, L76.82
68. The bulbourethral gland is found in the _______ system.
A. neurological B. cardiovascular C. male genital D. female genital
69. A tethered health record allows patients to
A. restructure insurance copayments. B. use a secure portal to access their own records. C. compare their health records to the records of patients with similar diagnoses. D. amend the diagnoses listed in the health record.
70. A patient is diagnosed with lymphocytic lymphoma. Another patient is seen several weeks later and is diagnosed with histiocytic lymphoma. Both of these diagnoses are examples of _______ lymphoma.
A. basic B. Hodgkin’s C. non-Hodgkin’s D. Burkitt’s
71. A patient receives a blood glucose monitor. What HCPCS Level II code would be assigned?
A. E0976 B. E0607 C. E0562 D. E4752
72. A good compliance program in the health care setting includes
A. HHS surveillance. B. regular tracking and monitoring of coding activities. C. meetings with compliance officers. D. regular audit consultations with trustees of the AAPC.
73. A patient with numerous symptoms is seen in the laboratory for a general health panel to gauge her overall physical well-being. What CPT code would be assigned for a general health panel?
A. 80051 B. 82136 C. 84135 D. 80050
74. Code 71030-TC indicates a/an
A. complete chest x-ray, four views, technical component only. B. incomplete chest x-ray, two views, technical and professional component. C. complete chest x-ray, two views, technical component only. D. incomplete chest x-ray, three views, technical and professional component
75. If patients choose to obtain copies of their medical records, under the terms of HIPAA, providers can
A. also fulfill requests for prescription data. B. reschedule office visits to allow time to update medical records. C. complete employee paperwork. D. charge a reasonable fee for providing copies of those records.
76. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of fever, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. The patient is diagnosed with salmonella meningitis. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned?
A. A23.24 B. A02.21 C. A05.26 D. A07.21 Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
77. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of right knee pain. He states that he was playing baseball the previous evening and accidentally fell when sliding into first base. The physician obtains an expanded problem focused history and examination, as well as a two-view x-ray of the right knee. The physician reviews the x-ray, as well as the notes in the medical record, and renders a diagnosis of osteoarthritis of the knee. The physician performs a patellofemoral arthroplasty to repair the knee. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 27477, M17.12 B. 27506-RT, N17.11 C. 27477-RT, D17.39 D. 27447-RT, M17.11
78. Provision of security against a hurt, loss, or damage with specific cash payments is called
A. copayment. B. protection. C. indemnity. D. secured loss.
79. HCPCS modifier –E2 indicates that the patient had a surgical procedure performed on the
A. lower left eyelid. B. upper left eyelid. C. upper right eyelid. D. lower right eyelid.
80. When is code 58120 assigned?
A. The code is assigned for permanent pacemaker insertion. B. The code has been deleted and cannot be assigned. C. The code is assigned for a patient undergoing dilatation and curettage. D. The code is assigned as an add-on code.
81. Epithelial tissue that secretes its products directly into the bloodstream is made of
A. extracellular matrix. B. endocrine gland cells. C. endoplasmic reticulum. D. columnar epithelial cells.
82. Which of the following modifiers would be assigned for a moribund patient?
A. P4 B. P1 C. P5 D. P3
83. The anatomical location of the calyx is the
A. spine. B. brain. C. arm. D. kidney.
84. Which one of the following requirements is outlined in the guidelines established in HIPAA’s Privacy Rule?
A. Hospital administrators must encrypt data within older data files. B. Physicians must not disclose patient information to consulting physicians. C. Patients must receive notice if their information will be used or disclosed to third parties. D. Managers must secure medical records immediately following patient admission.
85. The I-10 helps coders classify patient
A. morbidity and mortality. B. management information. C. evaluation files. D. reimbursement data.
86. During a routine examination, a male patient is diagnosed with an elevated PSA. The physician performs a biopsy of the prostate with a rectal ultrasound to pinpoint the source of the problem. Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would be assigned?
A. 55725, 76000-26, R93.6 B. 55700, 76872-26, R97.2 C. 55734, 73200-26, R97.2 D. 55720, 74000-26, R97.3
87. Health care practitioners must maintain records of privacy policy practices and procedures for
A. 20 years. B. 10 months. C. 2 years. D. 6 years. Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
88. A patient comes to the emergency department of a rural hospital. He complaints of problems sleeping, foot swelling, and insomnia. After a detailed review of the patient’s history and a detailed examination, the patient is diagnosed with chronic renal insufficiency, nephrotic syndrome, and anemia, based on the values listed in his blood test. The patient undergoes a biopsy of the left and right kidneys under physician guidance. A CT scan is also used for guidance and needle placement. A follow-up CT scan with physician review and interpretation is also performed. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 50500-73, 51200-LT, C79.2, C61 B. 50200-RT-LT, 50310-RT, 51252-26, E46, N18.9, N04.9 C. 51000, 50310-59-LT, J90, Z90.12, E85.4 D. 50200-50, 50200-59-RT, 77012.26, N18.9, N04.9, D64.9
89. Data stored in a health care facility must
A. comply with HIPAA rules and must be maintained securely. B. adhere to OIG policies and procedures. C. be organized in accordance with state standards for electronic data interchange. D. conform to the physician’s expectations for data storage.
90. Health care practitioners who submit fraudulent bills to increase reimbursement may
A. be blacklisted according to geographic location. B. be listed in the Coding Directory of Fraudulent Billing published annually by the Department of Health and Human Services. C. be reported to the Office of the Attorney General. D. face financial penalties or, in some cases, imprisonment.
91. Which of the following anesthesia modifiers indicates a normal, healthy patient?
A. P3 B. P1 C. P4 D. P2
92. When coding burns, coders should
A. classify all burns as acute burns. B. assign separate codes for each burn site. C. assign the code for third-degree burns. D. assign the code for chronic burns.
93. A 65-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for 48 hours to receive treatment from her physician. This patient would be covered under
A. Medicare Part D. B. Medicare Part A. C. Medicare Part B. D. Medicare Part C.
94. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of ongoing headaches. The headaches began one week prior and have persisted ever since. A lumbar spinal tap is performed to pinpoint the source of the patient’s headaches. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned?
A. 62270, G44.1 B. 62270, G74.3 C. 62141, G46.8 D. 62272, G46.9
95. What code would be assigned for a tube pericardiostomy?
A. 33210 B. 33026 C. 33015 D. 33050
96. What is the code description for 65101-LT?
A. Removal of ocular implant performed laterally B. Fine needle aspiration of orbital contents on the left third of the orbit C. Biopsy of cornea performed on the lower third of the cornea D. Enucleation of eye, without implant, performed on the left side of the body
97. Another name for diazepam is
A. Flexeril. B. Valium. C. Norflex. D. Myolastan.
98. The gatekeeper concept refers to the operation of
A. prospective payment organizations. B. retrospective payment organizations. C. ambulatory payment surgery centers. D. health maintenance organizations.
99. The CPT code for thrombolysis is
A. 93000. B. 92975. C. 92920. D. 93797.
100. According to HIPAA, a patient’s information may be released for
A. paternity testing. B. research. C. determining premiums based on a patient’s past medical history. D. transferring electronic medical records to remote locations. Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
101. Which of the following statements is true of the Affordable Care Act?
A. It includes a provision for military service members who served in Afghanistan. B. It requires health care facilities to maintain health records for at least 10 years. C. It makes it mandatory for patients to carry health insurance. D. It offers parents supplementary coverage for dependents with chronic illness
102. A patient is seen in the physician’s office after the results of an earlier mammogram demonstrated microcalcification in the right breast as well as a breast lesion. The lesion is excised using needle localization. The patient’s final diagnosis is fibrosclerosis of the right breast. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned?
A. 19120-RT, L10.11 B. 19125-RT, N60.31 C. 19126-LT, M25.1 D. 19123-RT, H16.11
103. A coder would assign a Q code as a temporary code for
A. holistic treatments for spinal procedures. B. durable medical equipment only. C. procedures or services only. D. procedures, services, and supplies
104. Which of the following forms is used to bill outpatient charges?
A. HCFA-1350 or CMS-650 B. HCFA-1400 or CMS-1540 C. AMA-14 or UCF-1250 D. CMS-1500 or UCF-1500.
105. During a routine examination, a patient indicates that she is taking an antihypertensive medication that causes her kidneys to excrete more urine. These antihypertensive medications are called
A. calcium-channel blockers. B. anticoagulants. C. beta blockers. D. diuretics.
106. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of postnasal drip, frequent nosebleeds, headaches, and difficulty breathing. She is diagnosed with a deviated nasal septum, hypertrophy of the turbinate, and inflammation of the ethmoid sinuses. The physician performs an endoscopic ethmoidectomy of the left nasal sinus, septoplasty, and turbinate excision. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 31255, 30520, 30130, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2 B. 31255-LT, 30520-51, 30130-51, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2 C. 31230, 30520, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2 D. 31230-51, 30520-LT, J34.2
107. A physician is analyzing specific organs in a particular region of the patient’s body. In her notes, she refers to the transverse or cross-sectional plane, which divides the body
A. inferiorly. B. vertically. C. horizontally. D. bilaterally. Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
108. A patient comes to the emergency room after having dinner at a restaurant, where she began to experience chest tightness during the meal. She is seen for a cardiology consultation in the outpatient setting for a diagnosis of chest tightness. Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would be assigned?
A. 99245, R07.89 B. 99244, R07.59 C. 99242, R17.52 D. 99243, R25.96
109. Providers that receive reimbursement after health care services have been provided are being compensated under the _______ system.
A. prospective payment B. retrospective payment C. capitation D. UCR
110. The regulations in HIPAA apply to three groups of individual and corporate entities, each involved in electronic medical records transfer. These groups are collectively referred to as
A. health care administrators. B. covered entities. C. provisional health care data collectors. D. protected personnel.
111. The largest salivary glands are called the _______ glands.
A. amylase B. parotid C. sublingual D. submandibular
112. Which modifier indicates a staged or related procedure performed during the postoperative period?
A. -59 B. -57 C. -58 D. -54
113. The voluntary program that’s financed through a combination of payments from general federal revenues and premiums paid by beneficiaries who elect to participate is called
A. CHAMPVA. B. Medicare Part B. C. Medicaid. D. TRICARE.
114. What is the full code description for 33536?
A. Repair of postinfarction ventricular septal defect, with or without myocardial resection B. Coronary artery bypass, using arterial graft(s); 4 or more coronary arterial grafts C. Repair of double outlet right ventricle with intraventricular tunnel repair D. Closure of atrioventricular valve (mitral or tricuspid) by suture or patch
115. Categorically needy and medically needy patients may qualify for
A. Medicaid. B. CHAMPVA. C. Champus. D. Medicare Advantage
116. ICD-10-CM code S50.351A indicates that the patient has a superficial foreign body of the right elbow. The A indicates that
A. code S50.351A should be assigned to page 1 of the medical record, but not subsequent pages. B. this is the patient’s first encounter. C. this is the patient’s second encounter for the same original diagnosis. D. code S50.351A should be sequenced before secondary codes.
117. The foramen ovale is found in which anatomical location?
A. Fibula B. Heart C. Pancreas D. Liver Discussion: Billing Sample Certification
118. A new patient is seen in a clinic for complaints of shortness of breath, fever, difficulty swallowing, runny nose, and cough. The physician performs a detailed history, detailed examination, and medical decision making of low complexity. The physician also obtains a chest x-ray and lab workup. Based on the results of the diagnostic tests, the physician renders a diagnosis of upper respiratory tract infection and lymphadenopathy. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 99203, J06.9, R59.0 B. 99202, D63.1, J45.909 C. 99213, R06.82, F10.229 D. 99215, M19.011, R13.10
119. A patient has a disorder in which the bone marrow produces an overabundance of white blood cells. What is this disorder called?
A. Leukemia B. Hemophilia C. Coagulation D. Septicemia
120. A patient is diagnosed with acne. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned?
A. L74.2 B. L72.3 C. L70.0 D. L73.1
121. A coder assigns a HCPCS Level II code to a patient’s medical record. The code description reads as follows: Enteral feeding supply kit; syringe fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape. Based on this description, which HCPCS Level II code was assigned?
A. B4072 B. B4125 C. B4034 D. B4278
122. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) standards were developed to
A. ensure that coders could easily access each medical record. B. determine the structure of insurance carrier payments for health care practitioners. C. protect patient confidentiality when health information is transferred electronically. D. define XLTM standards for health records management.
123. Another name for third-party contractors who have access to medical information is
A. business associates. B. insurance administrators. C. healthcare vendors. D. covered entities.
124. Bones inside the nose are called
A. maxillae. B. turbinates. C. ethmoids. D. septal mucosa.
125. The atrioventricular (tricuspid) valve is located in the
A. fibula. B. lung. C. heart. D. brain.
126. Another term for disease evolution is
A. exacerbation. B. remission. C. pathogenesis. D. morphology.
127. The vitreous humor can be found in the
A. ear. B. tongue. C. nose. D. eye.
128. The codes for pacemakers and implantable defibrillators would be found in what section of CPT?
A. 33202–33273 B. 33200–33205 C. 33437–33537 D. 33533–33799
129. The HIPAA Privacy Rule indicates that
A. practitioners should disclose only the minimum amount of health information necessary for the purpose of the disclosure. B. physicians may release medical information at their o

Coronary Artery Bypass Surgery.
Coronary Artery Bypass Surgery.
Coronary Artery Bypass Surgery.
Module 4: Discussion Mrs. K is a 60-year-old white female who presented to the ER with complaints of her heart “beating out of my chest.” She is complaining that she is having increased episodes of shortness of breath over the last month and in fact has to sleep on 4 pillows. She also notes that the typical swelling she’s had in her ankles for years has started to get worse over the past two months, making it especially difficult to get her shoes on toward the end of the day. In the past week, she’s been experiencing fatigue and decreased urine output. Her past history is positive for an acute anterior wall myocardial infarction and coronary artery bypass surgery. She was a 2 pack a day smoker, but quit 8 years ago. On physical examination, auscultation of the heart revealed a rumbling S3 gallop and inspiratory crackles. She has +3 edema of the lower extremities. 1. Discuss the pathophysiology of an S3 heart sound and include causes for an S3 gallop?
Coronary artery bypass surgery, also known as coronary artery bypass graft (CABG, pronounced “cabbage”) surgery, and colloquially heart bypass or bypass surgery, is a surgical procedure to to an obstructed . A normal coronary artery transports to and from the itself, not through the main .
There are two main approaches. In one, the left , LITA (also called left internal mammary artery, LIMA) is diverted to the of the . In this method, the artery is “” which means it is not detached from the origin. In the other, a is removed from a leg; one end is attached to the or one of its major branches, and the other end is attached to the obstructed artery immediately after the obstruction to restore blood flow.
CABG is performed to relieve unsatisfactorily controlled by maximum tolerated anti-ischemic medication, prevent or relieve , and/or reduce the risk of death. CABG does not prevent (heart attack). This surgery is usually performed with the heart stopped, necessitating the usage of . However, two alternative techniques are also available, allowing CABG to be performed on a beating heart either without using the cardiopulmonary bypass, a procedure referred to as “off-pump” surgery, or performing beating surgery using partial assistance of the cardiopulmonary bypass, a procedure referred to as “on-pump beating” surgery. The latter procedure offers the advantages of the on-pump stopped and off-pump while minimizing their respective side-effects.
CABG is often indicated when coronary arteries have a 50 to 99 percent obstruction. The obstruction being bypassed is typically due to , , or both. Arteriosclerosis is characterized by thickening, loss of elasticity, and calcification of the arterial wall, most often resulting in a generalized narrowing in the affected coronary artery. Atherosclerosis is characterized by yellowish plaques of , , and cellular debris deposited into the inner layer of the wall of a large or medium-sized coronary artery, most often resulting in a partial obstruction in the affected artery. Either condition can limit blood flow if it causes a cross-sectional narrowing of at least 50%.

Graduate Student Success
Graduate Student Success
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QUESTION 1
According to the Professional Standards Council, at the core of a profession is
a. trust
b. loyalty
c. behavior
d. history
QUESTION 2
Traditionally, the term “professional” was associated with
a. the way a person earned money
b. the way a person behaved
c. the way a person communicated
d. the level of education a person achieved
QUESTION 3
Which is NOT a component of professionalism?
a. Being governed by a code of ethics
b. A commitment to competence
c. The attainment of the highest position in an organization
d. The promotion of the public good in their domain
QUESTION 4
The Five E’s of Professionalization include ALL of the following EXCEPT
a. education
b. examination
c. experience
d. expectations
QUESTION 5
Which note-taking strategy is characterized by two column and a small row at the bottom?
a. Outlining
b. Cornell Strategy
c. Sentence Strategy
d. Mapping Strategy
Behavior Modification Program Assignment
Directions and Case Studies
his week’s Assignment will help you demonstrate your mastery of the material covered this term. Your Assignment will consist of an analysis of questions related to two separate case studies. Each case presents a problem that you, the future ABA professional, will need to assess. You will design an effective behavior modification program as well as a plan to evaluate this program. Each case covers the theories, concepts, and research discussed this term.
Your answers to the questions should consist of information from the text and supplemental readings. Your primary sources should be the readings assigned for the course, but you also may use sources from the Library or other credible Internet sources.
Read each Case Study and answer the questions below. You will need to write 3-4 typed pages for each case in order to address all required parts of the Assignment. Answers to the questions should be typed in an APA formatted Word document, double-spaced in 12-point font and submitted to the Dropbox.
Your final paper must be your original work; plagiarism will not be tolerated. Be sure to review the Syllabus in terms of what constitutes plagiarism. Please make sure to provide proper credit for those sources used in your case study analysis in proper APA format. Please see the APA Quick Reference for any questions related to APA citations. You must credit authors when you:
Summarize a concept, theory or research
Use direct quotes from the text or articles
Read Case Study 1: William’s aggressive behavior
Ms. Tooley contacts you, a behavior analyst, to assist her with a child in her classroom named William. William is a healthy 6-year-old boy who has been terrorizing his classmates. The problem has been occurring since the beginning of the school year. William pushes, kicks, hits or bites other children in the class. This has often happened during recess time. Ms.Tooley first addressed the issue by scolding William. That did not appear to reduce the behavior, so she then required him to visit the principal’s office whenever an episode of aggressive behavior occurred. These visits also had little effect in reducing the aggressive behaviors.
Write a 3-4 page paper addressing the following:
Part I
Define the target behavior in William’s case study by writing a 1–2 sentence target behavior definition using terms that can be observed and the appropriate behavior analytic language.
Discuss one reason why the teacher’s original methods of behavior management may have failed.
Describe how you would first assess William. Provide rationale for your choice of assessment.
Identify a hypothetical function to William’s target behavior.
Part II
Design an effective behavior modification program.
Use a combination approach treatment package (two or more behavior techniques from the relevant literature).
One of your interventions should be designed to increase William’s appropriate behavior.
One of your interventions should be designed to decrease William’s inappropriate behavior.
Provide rationale for selecting the combination approach, drawing upon behavior theory. Your rationale should include a description of the function of William’s behavior and how your intervention choices address that function.
Part III
Explain how you would evaluate the modification program.
Include the following in your explanation:
The type of data you are collecting
How often you are collecting data
Who is going to collect that data
The research design you are using
An explanation of why that research design was the best choice
Describe how you will know if your treatment was effective. Make sure to explain each step.
Explain how to program for generalization and maintenance of William’s behavior.
Read Case Study 2: Annie’s change to Language Acquisition
Annie is a 4-year-old child diagnosed with autism. She uses very little language. She has a few words in her vocabulary and is capable of using language. She currently uses gestures and challenging behavior to get her wants and needs met. For example, if she wants a drink, she will lead her mother to the refrigerator and jump up and down and cry until her mother correctly guesses what she wants. You have been called in to use Skinner’s Verbal Behavior approach to develop a language acquisition program for Annie.

Assignment: Effective Training Evaluation Plans
Assignment: Effective Training Evaluation Plans
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Assignment 2: An Effective Training Evaluation Plan
Instructions:
In the online lectures in Module 3 and your textbook readings (“Training and Development”, Leadership”, and “Motivation, Job Satisfaction, and Job Involvement”) you learned about the importance of training your employees. However, training is only effective when employees can retain the information and incorporate what they learn to improve their job performance.
You have just learned that your company is looking for ways to cut back expenses. One of the cost cutting measures being considered is to terminate the training department, as the company considers this an expense and they do not believe training is contributing to the profitability of the company. As the head of the training department it is your job to defend the value of the department. You realize that well trained employees perform their jobs more efficiently and consequently can contribute to higher productivity and profits for the company. One way to show the value of training is to have tools that will allow a manager to track the performance of an employee both before and after they have received training.
Report
Write a report that will be shared with senior management on why training is a very important part of the company’s overall financial success. Discuss the advantages of having well-trained employees.
Evaluation Tool
Using what you have learned about transfer training and the evaluation of training programs create an evaluation tool which can be used to evaluate how effective any given employee training program is in terms of:
Increasing the level of transfer of knowledge (knowledge retention)
Monitoring the effectiveness of the skill performance in the job performance improvement
Include common attributes in your evaluation tool which could be applicable to most employees at the organization such as: employees showing concern for saving the company money or consistently turning in error free work. Your training tool should contain a minimum of 10 evaluation criteria.
Your training evaluation tool must be included with your report defending the value of the training department. You know that your report will be shared with senior level managers and eventually to the board of directors. However, you are uncertain whether or not you will be allowed to present your work at a later time or in a different manner. Therefore it is important that your report is well written and professional.
Report Details
The report should be 5-7 pages in length and include:
Executive Summary highlighting all the factors in the scenario.
Justification of the importance of retaining the training department in the company and explanation of how the training department is important to the overall success of the company.
Training Evaluation Tool to evaluate knowledge retention and job performance improvement (10 criteria minimum).
Explanation of how the evaluation tool will be implemented.
Describe how the evaluation tool will help evaluate the level of transfer of knowledge and skill performance for current training programs as well as, monitor and improve planning for future training effectiveness.
Summary and conclusion of tool’s effectiveness.
Submit your assignment to the M3: Assignment 2 Dropbox by Wednesday, June 19, 2013.
Assignment 2 Grading Criteria
Maximum Points
Executive Summary highlighting the scenario.
24
Justify why a training department is an important part of a company’s overall success, structure and culture. Discuss the advantages of having well-trained employees.
28
Create an Evaluation Tool to evaluate the effectiveness of a training program. Tool should evaluate knowledge transfer and performance of skills (10 question minimum).
32
Explain how the tool will be implemented at the company.
24
Describe how the evaluation tool will help evaluate knowledge transfer and skill performance of current training programs and monitor/ improve planning for future training effectiveness.
28
Write a Summary and Conclusion that highlights the tool’s effectiveness.
20
Writing Components (20% of LASA 1 grade)Organization (12 points): Introduction, Thesis, Transitions, and Conclusion.
Usage and Mechanics (12 points): Grammar, Spelling, and Sentence structure.
APA Elements (16 points): Attribution, Paraphrasing, and Quotations.
Style (4 points): Audience, and Word Choice.
44
Total:
200
For assistance with any problems you may have when completing this assignment—OR—to offer your assistance to classmates, please use the Problems and Solutions Discussion area located through the left side navigation link.

Washington Metropolitan Physicians & Nurses Union
Washington Metropolitan Physicians & Nurses Union
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NRS 430V Week 5 Professional Associations Membership:
Professional Dynamics – Advocacy and Activism
Grand Canyon University
Choose a professional nursing organization that relates to the nursing profession or your clinical practice area. Assuming that you are the chairperson of membership for the organization, create a full page flyer designed to recruit new members to the professional organization. In your flyer, include:
The function of the organization, as well as its mission and vision.
Potential advantages of membership in the organization.
Provide resource information for new members. Include the following: contact information, membership requirements, and organizational endorsements (what other members or other organizations are saying about the selected organization).
Create a topic for an upcoming meeting that would appeal to your target audience.
While APA format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using APA documentation guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.
This assignment uses a grading rubric. Instructors will be using the rubric to grade the assignment; therefore, students should review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.
Posted: 4 Years Ago
NRS 430V Week 5 Professional Associations Membership: Washington Metropolitan Physicians & Nurses Union
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Assignment: Biologically-Oriented Personality
Assignment: Biologically-Oriented Personality
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For this discussion, select either Topic A or Topic B.
Topic A:
For this discussion, select either Topic A or Topic B.
Topic A:
Describe the position of a biologically-oriented or trait-oriented personality theorist and the position of a social learning-oriented theorist. Explore the differences and the implications of the theoretical positions for rehabilitating prisoners.
Topic B:
Describe the position of a social psychologist who approves of deceptive and stressful research designs (if the stress does no lasting harm), and the position of a social psychologist who does not approve of this type of research. After completing the descriptions, state the values each psychologist (probably) holds, to take the position she or he does.
An individual’s personality is the combination of traits and patterns that influence their behavior, thought, motivation, and emotion. It drives individuals to consistently think, feel, and behave in specific ways; in essence, it is what makes each individual unique. Over time, these patterns strongly influence personal expectations, perceptions, values, and attitudes.
Personality psychology is the study of human personality and how it varies among individuals and populations. Personality has been studied for over 2000 years, beginning with Hippocrates in 370 BCE and spanning through modern theories such as the psychodynamic perspective and trait theory.
Early Philosophical Roots
The word “personality” originates from the Latin word persona, which means “mask.” Personality as a field of study began with Hippocrates, a physician in ancient Greece, who theorized that personality traits and human behaviors are based on four separate temperaments associated with four fluids of the body known as “humors”. This theory, known as humorism, proposed that an individual’s personality was the result of the balance of these humors (yellow bile, black bile, phlegm, and blood), which corresponded to four dispositions (grumpy, melancholy, calm, and cheer, respectively). While this theory is no longer held to be true, it paved the way for further discoveries and insight into human personality.

Assignment: Theory of multiple intelligences
Assignment: Theory of multiple intelligences
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After viewing the program and completing the reading assignment, you should be able to:
1. Define assessment.
2. Describe several ways to measure the reliability and validity of a psychological test.
3. Identify the contributions of Galton, Binet, Terman and Weschler to the science of measuring intelligence.
4. Explain how IQ is computed.
5. Summarize Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences.
6. Describe the evidence for the genetic and environmental bases of intelligence.
7. List the four methodological techniques used the gather information on a person.
8. Discuss the links among intelligence, creativity, and madness.
9. Explain the function of vocational interest tests.
10. Discuss the controversies surrounding intelligence assessment.
Objectives 17
After viewing the program and completing the reading assignment, you should be able to:
1. Define and compare the difference among these terms: sex, gender, gender identity, and gender role.
2. Explain the role of pheromones in sexual arousal.
3. Describe evolutionary theory as it applies to sexual behavior.
4. Describe the similarities in and differences between males and females in the sexual response cycle and mating.
5. Summarize current research on homosexuality.
Objectives 18
After viewing the program and completing the reading assignment, you should be able to:
1. Describe Erikson’s eight psychosocial stages.
2. List the physical changes associated with aging.
3. Summarize the tasks of adolescence.
4. Discuss the central concerns of adulthood.
5. List the strengths and weaknesses of Kohlberg’s cognitive approach to moral development, describe the controversies around the issues of gender and cultural differences in moral judgment, and discuss the distinction between moral behavior and moral judgment.
6. Identify cultural factors that place youth at risk for unhealthy development.
7. Discuss the importance of attachment in social development.
8. List the biological and social factors that can affect health and sexuality in later life.
9. Describe the risk factors for an elderly person in a nursing home.

Case: Negative Lymphadenopathy Noted.
Case: Negative Lymphadenopathy Noted.
Case: Negative Lymphadenopathy Noted.
NSG530 Module 1: Discussion 3. Mr. B is a 70-year-old man who developed sub sternal chest pains radiating down his left arm while at home. He was taken to the ER via ambulance. His breathing was labored, pulses rapid and weak, and his skin was cold and clammy.An ECG was done which revealed significant “Q” waves in most leads. Troponin level was elevated. Arterial blood was draw with the following results: Ph 7.22 PCO2 30 mm Hg pO2 70 mm Hg O2 sat 88% HCO3 22 meq/liter 1. Aside from the obvious diagnosis of MI, what is Mr. B’s acid base status and what caused this disturbance? Module 2: Discussion Melissa, a 12-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis comes to the primary care office with complaints of increased cough and productive green sputum over the last week. She also complains of increasing shortness of breath. She denies sore throat or nasal congestion. On physical examination her temperature is 101 and she has inspiratory wheezes bilaterally. Negative lymphadenopathy noted. Posterior pharynx is pink without exudate. BP 112/72 HR 96 RR 28. 1. In cystic fibrosis, the airway microenvironment favors bacterial colonization. In a minimum of 150 words explain the pathophysiological reason for this occurrence. Module 3: Discussion Mr. B, a 40-year-old avid long-distance runner previously in good health, presented to his primary provider for a yearly physical examination, during which a suspicious-looking mole was noticed on the back of his left arm, just proximal to the elbow. He reported that he has had that mole for several years, but thinks that it may have gotten larger over the past two years. Mr. B reported that he has noticed itchiness in the area of this mole over the past few weeks. He had multiple other moles on his back, arms, and legs, none of which looked suspicious. Upon further questioning, Mr. B reported that his aunt died in her late forties of skin cancer, but he knew no other details about her illness. The patient is a computer programmer who spends most of the work week indoors. On weekends, however, he typically goes for a 5-mile run and spends much of his afternoons gardening. He has a light complexion, blonde hair, and reports that he sunburns easily but uses protective sunscreen only sporadically. Physical exam revealed: Head, neck, thorax, and abdominal exams were normal, with the exception of a hard, enlarged, non-tender mass felt in the left axillary region. In addition, a 1.6 x 2.8 cm mole was noted on the dorsal upper left arm. The lesion had an appearance suggestive of a melanoma. It was surgically excised with 3 mm margins using a local anesthetic and sent to the pathology laboratory for histologic analysis. The biopsy came back Stage II melanoma. 1. How is Stage II melanoma treated and according to the research how effective is this treatment? Module 4: Discussion Mrs. K is a 60-year-old white female who presented to the ER with complaints of her heart “beating out of my chest.” She is complaining that she is having increased episodes of shortness of breath over the last month and in fact has to sleep on 4 pillows. She also notes that the typical swelling she’s had in her ankles for years has started to get worse over the past two months, making it especially difficult to get her shoes on toward the end of the day. In the past week, she’s been experiencing fatigue and decreased urine output. Her past history is positive for an acute anterior wall myocardial infarction and coronary artery bypass surgery. She was a 2 pack a day smoker, but quit 8 years ago. On physical examination, auscultation of the heart revealed a rumbling S3 gallop and inspiratory crackles. She has +3 edema of the lower extremities. 1. Discuss the pathophysiology of an S3 heart sound and include causes for an S3 gallop? Module 5: Discussion Brian is a 7-year-old boy who presents to the primary care office with his mother. His mom has noticed that Brian has been coughing frequently and seems to have shortness of breath at times. She reports that Brian had a “cold” with a low grade fever and runny nose about 2 weeks ago and the symptoms seem to appear after the cold. On physical examination, Brian appears in moderate respiratory distress, with suprasternal and intercostal retractions. His vital signs include a temperature of 100 A°F, a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, heart rate of 120 beats per minute, and pulse oximetry of 95% on room air. Lung exam is notable for diffuse symmetrical expiratory wheezes. His nasal mucosa is erythematous with boggy turbinates and clear mucus. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. 1. Based on this case, discuss the differences in the pathophysiology for asthma vs pneumonia. Include your thougths as to the diagnosis for this case. Module 6: Discussion Mike is a 23-year-old white male admitted for severe depression. He has a history of bipolar disorder and is currently taking valproate (Depakote) 500 mg XR daily. His psychiatrist ordered LFT’s to follow the valproate therapy. LFT’s were abnormal: ALT 1178 u/L, AST 746 u/L. the patient was asymptomatic. He denies fever, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting or jaundice. He denies using other medication or alcohol but admits using illicit IV drugs starting about 8 weeks ago and continuing to present. He never had a blood transfusion. Aside from Depakote he is presently taking clonazepam 1 mg prn and fluoxetine (Prozac) 40 mg qd. Other blood work: Direct bili 1 mg/dL, alkphos 188 u/L, anti-HCV negative on hospital day 1, positive on day 3. HCV-RNA PCR positive. Hep A, B, and D markers negative. Patient diagnosis: Acute Hepatitis C. 1. List some clinical manifestations typically seen in Hepatitis C and major treatment strategies. Module 7: Discussion A nurse practitioner (NP) is talking with a 70-year-old patient who asks if she could discuss a problem that she is embarrassed to talk about with her physician. She states she has been having increasing problems with incontinence. Every time she coughs or sneezes, she notices a loss of urine. She has not had any fever or chills or pain with urination. She asks the NP if this is just a sign of getting older? 1. Discuss the etiology associated with incontinence in the aging adult. Module 8: Discussion Ann is a 32-year-old married female who presents to her nurse practitioner reporting lower abdominal pain, cramping, slight fever, and dysuria of 3 days duration. History includes: LMP 2 weeks ago (regular) Reports oral contraceptive use Reports pain in lower abdomen with cramping and pain on urination for 3 days Denies any GI problems, reports regular bowel movements. Denies vaginal discharge Ann is married and in a monogamous relationship. Has one child age 2 Reports no use of condoms/sexual intercourse 2-3 times per week Denies any history of STDs Physical Exam reveals: Temp 100.6, P 80 BP 100/62 Wt. 125 Ht. 5’3’’ HEENT WNL No CVA tenderness Pain in lower quadrants with light palpation.Positive inguinal lymphadenopathy External genitalia without lesions or discharge Pelvic exam reveals minimal cervical mucopus Bimanual exam reveals uterine and adnexal tenderness and cervical motion pain. Uterus anterior, midline, smooth, not enlarged 1. Based on the above case the diagnosis is PID, What is an appropriate CDC-recommended therapeutic regimen for this patient? Module 9: Discussion A 38-year-old African-American woman was admitted for arthroscopic knee surgery. Her hematocrit was 25%, blood pressure was 140/94 mm Hg, and pulse was 112 beats/minute. She had a history of joint and bone pain, jaundice, and abdominal pain. Due to the presenting symptoms (joint and bone pain, abdominal pain, and jaundice) a diagnosis of Sickle Cell Disease was considered. 1. Provide a brief discussion of the pathophysiology of sickle cell disease and discuss the clinical manifestations and the etiology associated with each manifestation of this disease. Module 10: Discussion A 28-year-old male presents to the primary care office for evaluation of left calf pain, swelling, and redness. He reports that this started one day ago and worsened today. He ran a 27-mile marathon 2 days ago and traveled for 3 hours in a car today. He reports slight pain on walking and a swollen red calf. He took Ibuprofen 600 mg twice today without relief. Patient reports being an experienced runner, running 3-5 miles daily. He trained for the marathon for 4 months. Patient also reports a history of exercise induced asthma and uses albuterol sulfate HFA as needed. On physical exam patient appears in good health T 99 P 68 R 18 BP 118/78 wt. 175 lb, height 72 in. BMI 23.1. Heart rate is regular without murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Lungs clear bilaterally. HEENT WNL.Strength lower extremities +5 and DTRs + 2.Left calf erythematous, edematous, warm and tender on palpation.Pulses 3+. Two possible diagnoses were considered: deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and rhabdomyolysis. Stat ultrasound of left leg to rule out DVT was ordered and read as normal CBC WNL Creatine Kinase (CK) 23,000 U/L (normal 24-170 U/L) BUN and Creatinine WNL A diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis was made. 1. Discuss the pathophysiology of acute renal failure in rhabdomyolysis. Module 11: Discussion Bob, a 38 year old male, has been experiencing severe intermittent headaches for about 10 years. When they occur, he experiences intense burning pain on one side of his head, tearing in his eye, congestion and a runny nose. These headaches generally occur several times a day and last approximately one hour. The headaches are episodic; Bob can be headache free for several months but then experience an attack. 1. Based on the case scenario, provide a diagnosis for Bob. Provide the pathophysiology for this type of headache and discuss current treatment options. Module 12: Discussion How will your clinical practice improve with the integration of the course content? In a minimum of 150 words, provide a main discussion to the questions above by Wednesday at midnight. Respond to one of your classmates on a separate day of the week from your original posting.