Nursing

Agricultural and food industries risks
Agricultural and food industries risks
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Read the questions carefully and give a complete answer. You must use references for all material used from other sources. Your answer should adhere to APA parenthetical citing style and should have a reference section. Grammar and spelling count so take the time to proof-read each answer carefully. I strongly recommend that you write out your answers first, preferably in Word so that you may use its Spelling and Grammar tool. Once you are satisfied with your answer, then simply cut and paste them into the exam.
(1) Question: Pick and describe, using course material (citing as appropriate), five (5) characteristics of our agricultural and food industries and the threat agents which could impact them and how do these characteristics increase our risk?
The expectation is that you answer this essay question with three or more paragraphs. You will need an intro paragraph, body, and conclusion paragraph. Each paragraph must be a minimum of 4 – 6 sentences. Cite and reference your sources according to APA guidelines.
(2) Question: What radioactive material killed Alexander Litvinenko in London in November 2006? How has the investigation developed between 2007 and 2016? Do the British authorities have a theory who ordered Litvinenko killed?
The expectation is that you answer this essay question with three or more paragraphs. You will need an intro paragraph, body, and conclusion paragraph. Each paragraph must be a minimum of 4 – 6 sentences. Cite and reference your sources according to APA guidelines.
(3) Question: In April 2010, President Obama said, “The single biggest threat to US security, both short-term, medium-term and long-term, would be the possibility of a terrorist organization obtaining a nuclear weapon.” How does this statement impact current U.S. National Security Policy? If you were President, what changes would you make to U.S. National Security Policy to reduce the likelihood of a terrorist organization obtaining a nuclear weapon?
The expectation is that you answer this essay question with three or more paragraphs. You will need an intro paragraph, body, and conclusion paragraph. Each paragraph must be a minimum of 4 – 6 sentences. Cite and reference your sources according to APA guidelines.
(4)
Question: The video “Iran Nuclear Deal: Triumph of Diplomacy or Dangerous Precedent?” provides several different perspectives on the Iranian Nuclear Deal. Detail one perspective from each side of the argument (Triumph of Diplomacy and Dangerous Precedent) then support it with applicable references explaining the rationale for each side of the debate.
The expectation is that you answer this essay question with three or more paragraphs. You will need an intro paragraph, body, and conclusion paragraph. Each paragraph must be a minimum of 4 – 6 sentences. Cite and reference your sources according to APA guidelines.

Assignment: Benefits Of Program
Assignment: Benefits Of Program
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This report is presented through coordination of multidisciplinary approaches. The team includes unit supervisors, managers, material management, quality improvement team and physicians. The main purpose of this project is to implement the use of Mepilex dressing into the hospital in order to prevent pressure ulcers. This project target to prevent complication and cost associated with hospital acquired pressure ulcer. If the patient has an existing pressure ulcer or occurrence of new users, Mepilex foam dressing will be initiated for skin prevention. According to the research conducted by International Journal of Tissue Repair and Regeneration, Mepilex bland dressing aids in ulcer healing by 67% compared to other brands and reduces pain. Mepilex dressing, is a “multiple layered foam dressing which is designed to absorb wound discharge and protect the wound from infiltration of microorganisms and has its own absorbent properties”(Just Home Medical). It is also very easy to remove without affecting the skin around the wound. This program is proposed to provide a safe environment by developing new practice using evidence based practices. Out of “371 critically ill patients who received customary care with the bordered sacral foam dressing in situ had PU rates of 0–3.1%, compared with 3.8–13.1% for the control groups. A variety of less well-controlled studies involving more than 1000 patients provides supporting data (Berlowitz, D. , 2014, October 02)”.
The Cost or Budget Justification
Hospital acquired pressure ulcer increases the health cost, length of hospital stay and can delay the recovery time.“Pressure ulcers cost $9.1 billion to $11.6 billion per year in the United States. Cost of individual patient care ranges from $20,900 to $151,700 per pressure ulcer. Medicare estimated in 2007 that each pressure ulcer added $43,180 in costs to a hospital stay” (Berlowitz, D. , 2014, October 02). Another cost related to pressure ulcers involves daily dressing change. Mepilex dressing does not have to be changed daily. According to the study conducted at North York General Hospital (NYGH), “at least 48 patients had dressings changed daily. This amounted to 56 hours of nursing time per week or 1.4 full-time nurses per week. Reducing this to three times weekly saves 33 hours of nursing time per week, equal to 0.9 full-time nurses. Only 100 patient wounds treated with non-advanced dressings (gauze) can be treated in the same time as 230 patient wounds with advanced dressings” (Popovich, K., &Tohm, P. (2010, September).
Evaluation of the project:
The principle of quality focuses on improvement of quality and performance. The interdisciplinary team will be responsible for initiating and preventing pressure ulcer project into each unit, making decisions about the design and monitoring progress. A comprehensive skin assessment, standardized pressure ulcer risk assessment, care planning and implementation to address areas of risk should be done every shift and documented per protocol. A data collection survey will be conducted for the effectiveness after the intervention. The survey will include number of pressure ulcer in hospital, clinical indication, clear accountabilities, product availability, staff awareness, education and expectations for performance documentation of actual patient care. The recommendation and patient care impact as well as cost effective of the Mepilex foam dressing will be reevaluated within a year.
Summary
Pressure ulcer has been one of the topics of concern today in the health care industry because it brings serious risk to patients and the quality of their life. The evidence has found that the use of Mepilex dressing along with standard skin assessment, to decrease the cost of health and hospital stay of an individual. After the investigation, discussion and some research done at this hospital about hospital acquired pressure ulcer, the team has concluded to implement new practice of Mepilex use for further prevention of pressure ulcer.

Assignment: Interaction and the Individual
Assignment: Interaction and the Individual
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Your evaluation of a new political candidate may best be described as a(n) ____ while your overall political ideology may better be described as a(n) _____.
A. ideology; value
B. value; attitude
C. attitude; value.
D. both refer to attitudes
Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points
Individuals’ attitudes are __________ predictors of their behavior.
A. weak
B. very strong
C. somewhat strong
D. perfect
Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points
Nathan started attending KKK meetings when he saw some of his African-American neighbors getting better jobs than him. Which of the following theories best explains Nathan’s negative attitudes toward African Americans?
A. social distance theory
B. symbolic interaction
C. Blumer’s theory of group position
D. status construction theory
Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points
Recent research using the Bogardus social distance scale shows which group to be most “distant” among American students?
A. African Americans
B. Latinos
C. Asians
D. Arabs
Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points
LaPiere’s study of prejudice clearly showed that
A. most people have some prejudice
B. most people act on their prejudices.
C. most people do not act on their prejudices
D. both a and c
Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points
Overall, American political attitudes lean on being
A. very conservative.
B. moderately conservative.
C. moderately liberal
D. very liberal.
Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points
Based on status construction theory, what would be the best way to get what you want out of a group and leave a positive impression?
A. Act like a very nice person.
B. Act like a generous person.
C. Act like a majority member of society.
D. Act like a high-status person.
Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points
Willer’s research showing presidential approval ratings increasing after the 9/11 terrorist attacks in the U.S. clearly showed
A. in-group bias tendencies.
B. out-group bias tendencies.
C. prejudicial biases.
D. ideological alliances.
Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points
Equal status, shared goals, group interaction and authority supporting the group are all part of what hypothesis?
A. social contact hypothesis
B. group contact hypothesis
C. team-building hypothesis
D. status construction
Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points
Based on Thoit’s treatment of emotions, which of the following is NOT a dimension of emotion?
A. situational cues
B. physiological changes
C. an arousal
D. an emotion label
Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points
The moment that society gives meaning to an emotion it becomes a:
A. sentiment
B. feeling
C. mood
D. affect
Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points
Which of the following would be considered a primary emotion?
A. anger
B. fear
C. depression
D. all of the above are primary emotions
Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points
Which theory examines the role of emotions in identity processes?
A. identity theory
B. affect control theory
C. dramaturgy
D. emotional management theory
Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points
According to Scheff, which of the following emotions is essential to making people follow the rules of society?
A. anger
B. excitement
C. happiness
D. shame
Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points
Zurcher’s concept of emotional scripts most closely resembles what other concept reviewed in this chapter?
A. emotion rules
B. emotional energy
C. feeling rules
D. sentiment
Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points
Based on Lofland’s analysis of the role of culture in the expression of grief in society, which of the following places would have the hardest time coping with the loss of a child?
A. modern day America
B. modern day Europe
C. modern day Ethiopia
D. both a and b
Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points
Swidler’s research on love in American culture revealed what?
A. Americans find it hard to fall in love.
B. Americans initiate relationships based on a mythical view of emotional bonding between lovers.
C. Americans use a more realistic view of love to sustain relationships on a day-to-day basis.
D. both b and c
Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points
According to exchange theory and research, which of the following situations is most likely to produce a positive emotion?
A. An exchange in which people get the amount equal to their position in the group
B. An exchange in which you get as much as you gave.
C. An exchange in which you get less than you gave.
D. All of these exchanges will produce a positive emotion.
Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points
Arlie Russell Hochschild, distinguishes between the following three techniques of emotion work:
A. cognitive, communicative, and non-communicative
B. facial, communicative, and non-communicative
C. cognitive, bodily, and expressive
D. none of the above
Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points
Sharp (2010) argues that prayer helps individuals manage negative emotions because it provides an imaginary social support interaction that provides:
A. someone to express emotions or interact with during trying times
B. positive reflected appraisals
C. an exemplar to imitate
D. all of the above

Assignment: campaign contributions
Assignment: campaign contributions
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1. <11{1[2(06)06]}> Reporter: A new campaign finance reform bill being considered by Congress would limit the amount of campaign contributions that political candidates can receive. However, a survey of candidates running for mayor, governor, and senate seats shows that not one of them favors the bill. Clearly, there is no desire among politicians to limit campaign contributions.
Which one of the following points out the flaw in the reporter’s argument above? (Points : 1)
The reporter doesn’t indicate the amount that the new bill would limit campaign contributions.
The evidence provided by the reporter suggests that most politicians are in favor of the new bill.
The reporter wrongly assumes that no politician has ever supported a bill intended to limit campaign contributions.
The views of candidates currently running for office do not necessarily represent the views of all politicians.
Question 2. 2. <11{1[4(17)17]}> Mrs. Orlof teaches two history classes, one in the morning and one in the afternoon. Yesterday she gave the same test to both classes. Anyone who failed the test must take a retest. Since a greater percentage of students who took the morning test failed the test than students who took the afternoon test, more of Orlof’s morning history students than afternoon history students will have to take the retest.
The conclusion above is not necessarily valid because: (Points : 1)
more students in the morning class may have passed the test than failed the test.
some students may have been absent from both classes.
some of the students who passed the afternoon test may have received information about the test from morning students.
more students may have taken the test in the afternoon than in the morning.
Question 3. 3. <11{1[1(19)19]}> All sages provide both wisdom and inspiration. Since Dasha’s speech contained wisdom and greatly inspired her audience, Dasha is a sage.
Which one of the following points out the flaw in the argument above? (Points : 1)
Just because Dasha is a sage doesn’t mean that she is always wise and inspirational.
Just because Dasha’s speech provided wisdom and inspiration doesn’t mean that it provided more wisdom than inspiration.
Just because Dasha satisfied two requirements of being a sage doesn’t necessarily mean that she satisfies all the requirements of being a sage.
Just because Dasha provided wisdom and inspiration in a speech doesn’t mean that all sages use speeches to provide wisdom and inspiration.
Question 4. 4. <21{1[1(13)13]}> A recent study of 100 employees from six departments of a major corporation found 65% to be sleep deprived. The researchers concluded that the majority of corporate employees are sleep deprived.
The researcher’s conclusion is suspect because it: (Points : 1)
assumes that corporate employees are more sleep deprived than other people.
is based on evidence that is statistically impossible.
fails to describe the effects the sleep deprivation has.
relies on a sample that is too small to represent the entire corporate workforce.
Question 5. 5. <21{1[2(24)24]}> The average height of members of the high school basketball team is six feet, three inches. Jerry is on the high school basketball team, so Jerry must be taller than six feet.
The argument above is flawed because it confuses (Points : 1)
Jerry with other members of the team
the members of one team with the members of another team
people who are six feet three inches tall for people who are exactly six feet tall
an average for the individuals that make up that average.
Question 6. 6. <11{1[3(02)02]}> Catherine goes to her local movie theater only to see romantic comedies. Since Catherine did not go to the movies yesterday, there is not a romantic comedy playing at her local theater.
The reasoning above is flawed because the evidence: (Points : 1)
does not suggest that Catherine goes to see every romantic comedy that plays at her local movie theater.
implies that Catherine is uninterested in most types of movies.
does not indicate whether Catherine watches only romantic comedies at home.
suggests that Catherine’s local movie theater hardly ever shows romantic comedies.
Question 7. 7. <21{2[2(12)36]}> Career counselor: It is best for artists to build a practical and safe career that will guarantee them a secure income, and then pursue their art in their spare time. That way, they will be motivated to work hard at their day jobs to support their art making, and both their career and their art will thrive.
Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument? (Points : 1)
Some forms of art making are expensive and require a good deal of money to pursue.
Many people who aren’t artists prefer to pursue practical and safe careers.
Having the time and money to make art doesn’t guarantee an artist commercial success.
Splitting time between two pursuits in life often causes both to suffer.
Question 8. 8. <21{2[1(01)25]}> The untimely death of Professor Hathaway halted his groundbreaking research into the uses of solar power. It therefore appears that Hathaway’s research will not result in practical applications.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument? (Points : 1)
Professor Hathaway’s research can be used by other scientists to create useful applications.
Not all professors at Professor Hathaway’s university knew that he was conducting research into the uses of solar power.
Officials at Professor Hathaway’s university have refused requests to make Professor Hathaway’s research public.
Researchers at other universities are conducting research into the potential applications of solar power.
Question 9. 9. <11{2[3(02)26]}> Aron: The two double A batteries in my CD player are dead, so the CD player doesn’t work. My television remote control, which also uses two double A batteries, works fine. So if I move the two batteries from my television remote control to my CD player, the CD player will definitely work.
Aron’s argument is most strengthened if which one of the following is true? (Points : 1)
Aron inserted the current batteries in his television remote control two months before he inserted the current batteries in his CD player.
The amount of energy required to power the CD player is not greater than the amount of energy needed to power the television remote control.
Aron has used his television remote control more times than he has used his CD player since inserting the current batteries into each device.
Double A batteries provide less energy than either C batteries or D batteries.
Question 10. 10. <11{3[1(03)39]}> Last season at City Opera House, far more people attended opera X than opera Y. However, opera Y generated far greater net profits for City Opera House than did opera X.
Each of the following could directly explain the result indicated above EXCEPT: (Points : 1)
a difference in the ticket prices of operas X and Y.
a difference in the operating expenses of operas X and Y.
a difference in the subject matters of operas X and Y.
a difference in the merchandise sales associated with operas X and Y.
Question 11. 11. <21{3[2(08)44]}> Surveys show that people who use calorie information to decide which foods to eat consume on average 100 calories less than they would if they didn’t check calorie information before eating. Strangely though, people who use calorie information in this way weigh more on average than people who don’t check calorie information before eating.
Which one of the following, if true, best explains the surprising statistic stated above? (Points : 1)
There are fewer people who check calorie information before eating than people who don’t check calorie information before eating.
People who usually check calorie information before eating consume more calories if they stop checking.
Some people who check calorie information before eating don’t consume any fewer calories than they would if they didn’t check.
People with a weight problem are most likely to check calorie information before eating.
Question 12. 12. <11{4[2(06)50]}> Choose the pair of words/phrases among the choices that exhibits the same logical relationship as the words/phrases in the following pair.
gavel : judge (Points : 1)
baton : conductor
symphony : composer
stop sign : driver
ruler : math
Question 13. 13. <21{4[1(10)54]}> Choose the pair of words/phrases among the choices that exhibits the same logical relationship as the words/phrases in the following pair.
heavy : weight (Points : 1)
dry : wet
feather : scale
hot : temperature
color : size
Question 14. 14. <21{4[3(02)46]}> Choose the pair of words/phrases among the choices that exhibits the same logical relationship as the words/phrases in the following pair.
conductor : orchestra (Points : 1)
skater : rink
teacher : principal
producer : movie
director : cast
Question 15. 15. <11{5[1(01)57]}> Arthur: The solutions to most mystery novels I read are not believable. However, my enjoyment of a mystery novel depends only on its suspenseful mood and colorful characters.
Norton: Roughly 80% of the mystery novels I read have believable solutions, which is good since I do not enjoy mystery novels that don’t have believable solutions.
The speakers above: (Points : 1)
agree that most mystery novels do not have believable solutions.
agree that a suspenseful mood and colorful characters add to the enjoyment of a mystery novel.
disagree on whether a believable solution is required for the enjoyment of a mystery novel.
disagree on whether an author’s enjoyment in creating a mystery novel influences whether that novel will have a believable solution.
Question 16. 16. <21{5[1(03)59]}> Barney: Last winter, I slipped on the outside stairs of PineTree Café and broke my leg. My fall was caused by ice on the stairs that the restaurant failed to remove. Since the restaurant clearly did not provide a safe atmosphere for its customers, I am justified in taking it to court.
Lydia: Unwarranted lawsuits are sweeping the country—lawsuits that have no legal merit and are brought simply to make lawyers and their clients rich. If this trend continues, soon our legal system will be swamped to the point where it won’t be able to administer justice to people who truly deserve it. You therefore should drop your case against PineTree Café.
The speakers above appear to disagree on which one of the following points? (Points : 1)
Barney is likely to win his case against Pinetree Café.
Barney’s lawsuit against Pinetree Café is unwarranted.
Many unwarranted lawsuits are sweeping the country.
The legal system will soon be unable to administer justice to people who deserve it.
Question 17. 17. <21{6[3(08)72]}> Some drugs combat obesity or alcohol addiction by turning off pleasure centers in the brain. However, if the dosage is too high, there’s a risk that people taking them will be plunged into depression.
The statements above, if true, support which one of the following assertions? (Points : 1)
It is useless to try to treat obesity or alcohol addiction through drugs.
All drugs, if taken at too high a dosage, pose the risk that the people taking them will be plunged into depression.
The benefits of a medication may be at least somewhat offset by its side effects.
Drugs that affect pleasure centers in the brain are often taken at dosages considered to be too high.
Question 18. 18. <11{6[2(03)67]}> Only circus animals with a clean bill of health will perform in today’s exhibition. A monkey, a poodle, and a horse will perform in today’s exhibition. No circus animals with a clean bill of health were prescribed medications this week.
If the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true on the basis of them? (Points : 1)
The monkey, poodle, and horse are the only animals performing in today’s circus exhibition.
No circus animals were prescribed medications this week.
No more than two circus animals have a clean bill of health.
Neither the monkey nor the horse performing in today’s circus exhibition were prescribed medications this week.
Question 19. 19. <11{6[1(07)71]}> The higher the price of an antique, the greater people’s expectation that the object is rare. That, in turn, makes the antique appear more valuable.
If the statements above are correct, then offering an antique for sale at a bargain price: (Points : 1)
will likely increase people’s expectations that the antique is valuable.
will guarantee that the antique will not sell at a profit.
should be encouraged because it increases the likelihood that antique will be sold.
should be discouraged because it lessens a quality that makes that antique desirable.
Question 20. 20. <11{7[3(08)84]}> The president spoke to 19 congressmen from Texas to encourage them to vote for a bill. Since four of the 19 congressmen went on to vote for the bill, it is clear that the president persuaded those four to vote the way they did.
The argument above assumes that: (Points : 1)
the bill will not pass because a majority of Texas congressmen did not vote for it.
the Texas congressmen who voted against the bill were persuaded by someone other than the president to vote the way they did.
the president did not try to influence the votes of any congressmen outside of Texas.
the four Texas congressmen who voted for the bill were against it before they spoke to the president.
Question 21. 21. <11{7[1(01)77]}> Detective: The robbery at the mall was carried out by a mall employee acting alone roughly one hour after the mall closed last Saturday night. The only employees present at the mall at the time of the robbery were security guards Evans and Clark. Since the mall’s surveillance system was disabled by the thief just before the robbery, the thief must be Evans.
The argument above would be valid if: (Points : 1)
Clark is incapable of disabling the mall’s surveillance system.
both Evans and Clark are capable of disabling the mall’s surveillance system.
Evans and Clark are the mall’s only security guards.
the mall’s surveillance system is usually used 24 hours a day, seven days a week.
Question 22. 22. <11{7[2(03)79]}> Looking to increase the profits of his lemonade stand, Johann doubled the price of a cup of lemonade from 25 cents to 50 cents. This clearly shows Johann’s lack of business sense, for now he’ll almost certainly sell fewer cups at the new price and therefore make less money than before.
The argument above assumes that: (Points : 1)
Johann is looking to double the profits of his lemonade stand.
the price increase will likely put Johann out of business.
profits from the price increase will not offset the money lost when fewer cups are sold.
even if Johann sells more cups at the new price than he did at the old price, he’ll still lose money on the lemonade stand.
Question 23. 23. <11{8[1(10)98]}> Sometimes people get caught in a “downward spiral,” a case in which something leads to a result which in turn leads to more of the original thing, bringing on more of the result. As the process continues, the result continually gets worse and worse. An example is when people turn to binge eating when depressed, which causes them to put on weight and feel unhealthy, which then makes them more depressed, leading to more overeating, and so on.
The author is mainly concerned with: (Points : 1)
convincing people not to overeat.
explaining the process of the “downward spiral.”
showing how overeating can lead to depression.
showing how some processes lead to surprising results.
Question 24. 24. <11{8[1(04)92]}> The very large increase in allergies over the last thirty years is due to the great success of immunizations administered over this time period. Since immunizations have nearly eliminated life-threatening diseases such as polio, the human immune system increasingly targets other environmental substances in order to keep working properly. Allergy symptoms such as runny nose and itchy eyes result when the immune system attacks pollen that is breathed in from the air.
Which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage above? (Points : 1)
Immunizations often have surprising side effects.
Immunizations have been very successful in eliminating life-threatening diseases.
Viruses that once caused polio now cause allergies.
The use of immunizations has led to an increase in allergies.
Question 25. 25. <21{8[1(07)95]}> Political science professor: Many people insist that the Internet is revolutionizing the political process. They argue that Internet debates and online political polls and chat rooms give people greater access to political information. And they’re right that online political chatter increases daily. But offering or reading anonymous online opinions does not by itself make for active political participation. In the past one would attend a rally, protest, or town meeting to engage in real politics. Today, people sit passively in front of computer screens under the illusion that they are connecting with their fellow citizens.
Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the professor’s argument? (Points : 1)
Internet debates and online political polls and chat rooms give people greater access to political information.
Political organizations of the past bear no resemblance to the political organizations of today.
While the Internet has made more political content available, meaningful political involvement has decreased.
The Internet has revolutionized the political process because it has allowed many more political viewpoints to be expressed.

Assignment: Agricultural And Food Industries
Assignment: Agricultural And Food Industries
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Read the questions carefully and give a complete answer. You must use references for all material used from other sources. Your answer should adhere to APA parenthetical citing style and should have a reference section. Grammar and spelling count so take the time to proof-read each answer carefully. I strongly recommend that you write out your answers first, preferably in Word so that you may use its Spelling and Grammar tool. Once you are satisfied with your answer, then simply cut and paste them into the exam.
(1) Question: Pick and describe, using course material (citing as appropriate), five (5) characteristics of our As and the threat agents which could impact them and how do these characteristics increase our risk?
The expectation is that you answer this essay question with three or more paragraphs. You will need an intro paragraph, body, and conclusion paragraph. Each paragraph must be a minimum of 4 – 6 sentences. Cite and reference your sources according to APA guidelines.
(2) Question: What radioactive material killed Alexander Litvinenko in London in November 2006? How has the investigation developed between 2007 and 2016? Do the British authorities have a theory who ordered Litvinenko killed?
The expectation is that you answer this essay question with three or more paragraphs. You will need an intro paragraph, body, and conclusion paragraph. Each paragraph must be a minimum of 4 – 6 sentences. Cite and reference your sources according to APA guidelines.
(3) Question: In April 2010, President Obama said, “The single biggest threat to US security, both short-term, medium-term and long-term, would be the possibility of a terrorist organization obtaining a nuclear weapon.” How does this statement impact current U.S. National Security Policy? If you were President, what changes would you make to U.S. National Security Policy to reduce the likelihood of a terrorist organization obtaining a nuclear weapon?
The expectation is that you answer this essay question with three or more paragraphs. You will need an intro paragraph, body, and conclusion paragraph. Each paragraph must be a minimum of 4 – 6 sentences. Cite and reference your sources according to APA guidelines.
(4)
Question: The video “Iran Nuclear Deal: Triumph of Diplomacy or Dangerous Precedent?” provides several different perspectives on the Iranian Nuclear Deal. Detail one perspective from each side of the argument (Triumph of Diplomacy and Dangerous Precedent) then support it with applicable references explaining the rationale for each side of the debate.
The expectation is that you answer this essay question with three or more paragraphs. You will need an intro paragraph, body, and conclusion paragraph. Each paragraph must be a minimum of 4 – 6 sentences. Cite and reference your sources according to APA guidelines.

Assignment: Racial/ethnic disparities
Assignment: Racial/ethnic disparities
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Question 1
In the United States, research has documented socioeconomic and racial/ethnic disparities in residential exposures to _______________.
[removed] air pollution
[removed] hazardous waste sites
[removed] industrial facilities
[removed] all of the above
1 points
Question 2
In the context of ionizing radiation, the term relative biological effectiveness describes _______________, per unit of radiation energy absorbed by the body.
[removed] the relative damage caused by different types of ionizing radiation
[removed] the relative impact of acute versus chronic exposure to ionizing radiation
[removed] the relative risk of birth defects caused by exposure early versus late in pregnancy
1 points
Question 3
Which of the following occupations is not particularly associated with high exposure to asbestos?
[removed] Insulation Workers
[removed] Oil Workers
[removed] Shipbuilding Workers
1 points
Question 4
Which of the following diseases is a sentinel illness for asbestos exposure?
[removed] Fibrosis
[removed] Lung cancer
[removed] Mesothelioma
1 points
Question 5
The half-life of a radioactive element is the time it takes for half the atoms in a sample to _______________.
[removed] become non-radioactive
[removed] lose an electron
[removed] undergo radioactive decay
1 points
Question 6
Which of the following is not a syndrome associated with acute high-level exposure to ionizing radiation?
[removed] Bone marrow syndrome
[removed] Central nervous system syndrome
[removed] Gastrointestinal syndrome
[removed] Respiratory syndrome
1 points
Question 7
Occupational exposure to cotton dust causes _______________.
[removed] byssinosis
[removed] lacrimosis
[removed] tinnitus
1 points
Question 8
Which of the following types of radiation is not ionizing?
[removed] Beta radiation
[removed] Gamma radiation
[removed] Infrared radiation
1 points
Question 9
Which type of radiation is most penetrating, if a person is exposed from a source outside the body?
[removed] Alpha radiation
[removed] Beta radiation
[removed] Gamma radiation
1 points
Question 10
Nanoparticles are in the same size range as __________________ particulates.
[removed] fine
[removed] respirable
[removed] ultrafine
1 points
Question 11
Asbestos is a _______________ hazard.
[removed] biological
[removed] chemical
[removed] physical
1 points
Question 12
Which of the following is not a documented health effect of noise in the workplace?
[removed] Cognitive failures
[removed] Coronary heart disease
[removed] Decrease in immune system function
1 points
Question 13
Today, with asbestos exposures in the United States largely controlled, deaths from malignant melanoma in the country are _______________.
[removed] declining
[removed] holding steady
[removed] rising
1 points
Question 14
Radioactive decay occurs when an atom of a radioactive isotope _______________.
[removed] Absorbs a burst of energy
[removed] Ejects part of its nucleus
[removed] undergoes fusion of the particles in its nucleus
1 points
Question 15
In the United States, research on burdens of BPA, PFCs, and PBDEs in people’s bodies or in their microenvironments has shown:
[removed] consistently higher burdens in lower-socioeconomic-status and/or minority populations.
[removed] consistently lower burdens in lower-socioeconomic-status and/or minority populations.
[removed] variation in demographic patterns in body burdens.

Assignment: Computer Simulation
Assignment: Computer Simulation
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Question 1 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)
A scientist wishes to represent the location of an earthquake in California. Which type of model is most appropriate for this purpose?
[removed] Computer simulation
[removed] Equation
[removed] Graph
[removed] Map
Question 2 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)
Which of the following resulted from the growing consensus within the scientific community as to the accuracy of the Big Bang theory?
[removed] New scientific laws were created.
[removed] An older theory was supported.
[removed] Older theories were disproved.
[removed] New problems were considered untestable.
Question 3 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)
When a local farmer found oil bubbling to the surface in one of his fields, he reported the information to a group of scientists. After 30 years of experimentation, the scientists develop a new theory about how oil formed beneath this location. How do you know that this information is really a theory?
[removed] The theory proves a scientific law.
[removed] Most of the data were unobservable.
[removed] The theory was developed over time.
[removed] The data describe a natural phenomenon.
Question 4 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)
When a scientific investigation produces evidence that does not support the hypothesis, what can you conclude about the investigation?
[removed] A law has been formed.
[removed] A theory remains accurate.
[removed] A theory has been disproved.
[removed] More investigations need to be completed.
Question 5 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)
Which type of model is represented in the following image?
Public Domain
[removed] Computer simulation
[removed] Graph
[removed] Map
[removed] Small-scale object
Question 6 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)
Which of the following statements is true regarding both theories and laws?
[removed] Test problems
[removed] Require consensus
[removed] Lead to hypotheses
[removed] Explain data

Assignment: Decimal Integers
Assignment: Decimal Integers
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1. (5) What is 5ED4 – 07A4 when these values represent unsigned 16-bit hexadecimal numbers? The
result should be written in hexadecimal. Show your work. (P&H 3.1, §3.2)
2. (5) What is 5ED4 – 07A4 when these values represent signed 16-bit hexadecimal numbers stored in
sign-magnitude format? The result should be written in hexadecimal. Show your work. (P&H 3.2,
§3.2)
3. (5) What is 4365 – 3412 when these values represent unsigned 12-bit octal numbers? The result
should be written in octal. Show your work. (P&H 3.4, §3.2)
4. (5) What is 4365 – 3412 when these values represent signed 12-bit octal numbers stored in signmagnitude format? The result should be written in octal. Show your work. (P&H 3.5, §3.2)
5. (5) Assume 185 and 122 are unsigned 8-bit decimal integers. Calculate 185 – 122. Is there
overflow, underflow, or neither? (P&H 3.6, §3.2)
6. (5) Assume 185 and 122 are signed 8-bit decimal integers stored in sign-magnitude format.
Calculate 185 + 122. Is there overflow, underflow, or neither? (P&H 3.7, §3.2)
7. (5) Assume 185 and 122 are signed 8-bit decimal integers stored in sign-magnitude format.
Calculate 185 – 122. Is there overflow, underflow, or neither?
8. (5) Assume 151 and 214 are signed 8-bit decimal integers stored in two’s complement format. Calculate 151 + 214 using saturating arithmetic. The result should be written in decimal. Show work
9. (5) Assume 151 and 214 are signed 8-bit decimal integers stored in two’s-complement format.
Calculate 151 – 214 using saturating arithmetic. The result should be written in decimal. Show
your work. (P&H 3.10, §3.2)
10. (5) Assume 151 and 214 are unsigned 8-bit integers. Calculate 151 + 214 using saturating
arithmetic. The result should be written in decimal. Show your work. (P&H 3.11, §3.2)
11. (5) As discussed in the text, one possible performance enhancement is to do a shift and add instead
of an actual multiplication. Since 9 x 6, for example, can be written (2 x 2 x 2 + 1) x 6, we
can calculate 9 x 6 by shifting 6 to the left three times and then adding 6 to that result. Show the
best way to calculate 0x33 x 0x55 using shifts and adds/subtracts. Assume both inputs are 8-bit
unsigned integers. (P&H 3.17, §3.3)
12. (5) What decimal number does the bit pattern 0x0C000000 represent if it is a two’s complement
integer? An unsigned integer? (P&H 3.20, §3.5)
13. (5) If the bit pattern 0x0C000000 is placed in the Instruction Register, what MIPS instruction will be
executed? (P&H 3.21, §3.5)
14. (5) What decimal number does the bit pattern 0x0C000000 represent if it is a floating point
number? Use the IEEE 754 standard. (P&H 3.22, §3.5)
15. (5) Write down the binary representation of the decimal number 63.25 assuming the IEEE 754 single
precision format. (P&H 3.23, §3.5)
16. Write down the binary representation of the decimal number 63.25 assuming the IEEE 754 double
precision format. (P & H 3.24, 3.5)

American Political Institutions Assignment
American Political Institutions Assignment
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Question 1
A unitary form of government is defined as:
A system in which states and other governmental units have supreme authority over themselves
A system in which states and other governmental units are completely controlled by and under the authority of a central government
A system in which the people have supreme authority over themselves
A system in which governmental units and states share power with a central government
Question 2
At the time of the founding of the new nation, Britain had what form of government?
State-based form of government
Direct democracy
Unitary form of government
Central form of government
Question 3
Based on the 1790 U.S. Census, the National Archives estimates that only 20.7 percent of the U.S. population were White males 16 years and older. What percentage of the U.S. population does the National Archive estimate was eligible for participation in the political system by way of being White male property owners?
18 percent
2 percent
14 percent
6 percent
Question 4
Concurrent Resolution 331, which was passed by the U.S. Congress in 1988, recognized the influence of the ____________ on the _____________ and the ____________.
Iroquois Confederacy; Articles of Confederation; Bill of Rights
Iroquois Constitution; U.S. Constitution; Bill of Rights
Algonquin Confederacy; Articles of Confederation; Bill of Rights
Iroquois Constitution; Articles of Confederation; U.S. Constitution
Question 5
Democracy is:
A system of government in which religious leaders control the political process
A system of government in which the people exercise political power
A system of government in which the people control their economic well-being
A system of government in which political leaders make all social and economic decisions
Question 6
Do contemporary conservatives fully adhere to classical republican theories?
Yes, contemporary conservatives support using the government to solve social problems
No, contemporary conservatives believe in a limited role for government for solving social problems
Yes, contemporary conservatives value individual liberty over the public good
No, contemporary conservatives believe the government has a role to play in individual lives
Question 7
For the Constitution to become the new national government after the Continental Congress passed it, __________ of the states had to ratify it.
All
Two-thirds
Three-fourths
One-half
Question 8
Government provides security for its citizens by:
Protecting them from unfair business practices
Protecting them from discrimination
Maintaining armed forces
All of the above
Question 9
Lemuel Haynes argued that slavery directly violated classical republican theory. Which of the following arguments would not fit into this argument?
People cannot be classified as property
Denying liberty to slaves undermines the intrinsic virtue of the citizenry
Given that slaves are individuals, their rights should be protected under the law
Because liberty is a natural right, slavery is unlawful
Question 10
Rule of law is defined as:
The idea that laws only applies to the people and not to the politicians
The idea that although laws are important, general government decisions are supreme
The idea that laws should take precedence over arbitrary governance
The idea that laws should be based on biblical authority
Question 11
The Articles of Confederation established a _____________, in which the legislative body consisted of only one house.
Government with three branches
Unicameral form of government
Bicameral form of government
Government run solely through Congress
Question 12
The Articles of Confederation failed due to:
The inability of the government to declare war and make peace
A lack of will among the states to maintain alliances
The inability of the government to make decisions
The inability of the government to exert any real power in the running of the nation
Question 13
The body of political philosophy concerned with the idea that rule by the people should be indirect through representatives is known as:
Classical egalitarianism
Classical liberalism
Classical republicanism
Inegalitarianism
Question 14
The creation of a weak central government under the Articles of Confederation was a logical step for the new nation given that:
The colonists did not think government was useful
The colonists had rebelled against overbearing religious dogma
The colonists had rebelled against the absolutism of the British government
The colonists knew nothing of political philosophy
Question 15
The existence of the Internal Revenue Service is an example of Congress’s:
legislative powers
implied powers
stated powers
enumerated powers
Question 16
The Framers of the Constitution worked to find a balance between:
The authority of the states and the authority of the central government
The authority of religion and the authority of government
The authority of the rich and the authority of the poor
The authority of monarch and the authority of the legislature
Question 17
The main overarching mechanism for controlling people’s behavior and managing their conflicts is:
Government
Religion
Military action
Naure
Question 18
The official resolutions adopted by the U.S. House of Representatives and the U.S. Senate in 2008 and 2009 concerning the historical relationship between the government and African Americans included all of the following EXCEPT:
A resolution to provide reparations for descendants of slaves
A formal apology for slavery
An acknowledgment of harmful government action against African Americans via Jim Crow laws
An acknowledgment that past government actions have influenced the current position of African Americans
Question 19
The social construction of race is defined as:
The construction of a group of people based on skin color to fit religious norms
The construction of a group of people of various phenotypes, skin colors, and physical characteristics for political and social purposes
The codification of the reality that some groups of people are innately different from others
The understanding that race is innately biological and free from governmental influences
Question 20
The sociopolitical philosophical tradition supporting the exclusion of large segments of the American population from participation in the political system is known as:
Inegalitarianism
Classical liberalism
Classical egalitarianism
Classical republicanism
Question 21
The U.S. Congress provided an apology and reparations to which of the following groups?
Native Hawaiians for the seizure of their land
Japanese Americans interned during World War II
African American descendants of slaves
Jewish Americans in European concentration camps during World War II
Question 22
The U.S. Congress’ Naturalization Act of 1790 pronounced that:
Only free persons born in the United States were eligible for citizenship
Only free White persons were eligible for citizenship
Only free White males were eligible for citizenship
All persons born in the United States were eligible for citizenship
Question 23
The U.S. government is an example of which type(s) of democracy?
Representative democracy
Direct democracy
Constitutional democracy
B and C
Question 24
To control the behavior of its people, government:
All of the above
Devises rules and regulations
Manages conflict
Establishes order
Question 25
To protest the Tea Act in 1773, colonists disguised as ____________ boarded ships in Boston Harbor and threw tea chests overboard.
Runaway slaves
Women
American Indians
British royals
Question 26
To provide for the public good, governments must:
None of the above
Place the needs of groups with the most resources over groups with few resources
Occasionally encroach on individual liberty
Regularly encroach on the national security of society
Question 27
Under the Constitution, the amendment ratification process:
Allows one state to veto any changes
Allows two states to veto any changes
Is difficult and allows a small minority of states to veto any changes
Is easy in that it does not take a majority of states to veto any changes
Question 28
What are enumerated powers?
Powers of the state governments specifically stated in the Constitution
Powers of the state governments that are inferred from the powers expressly stated in the Constitution
Powers of the federal government specifically stated in the Constitution
Powers of the federal government that are inferred from the powers expressly stated in the Constitution
Question 29
Which of the following are to be considered natural rights?
Those rights that exist only in nature
Those rights to which every person is entitled and that are independent of government
Those rights that are based on social, economic, and political status
Those rights that are clearly delineated in a constitution
Question 30
What factors contributed to the broad-scale institution of slavery in Virginia by 1661?
Increase in the supply of African slaves
Difficulty with Indian servitude
Lack of sufficient White indentured servitude
All of the above
Question 31
What is a confederation?
A system in which states and other governmental units relinquish all political power, and no economic power, to the central government
A system in which states and other governmental units are completely controlled by and under the authority of a central government
A system in which states and other governmental units organize a weak central government while maintaining ultimate power for themselves
A system in which there is only a central government
Question 32
What is the main point of the supremacy clause?
It establishes that the Constitution and the laws of the United States are the law of the land and supreme to all laws passed by the state and local governments
It establishes that the national, state, and local governments have equal amounts of power
It establishes that the Articles of Confederation and the laws of the United States are the law of the land and supreme to all laws passed by the state and local governments
It establishes that the laws of the state and local governments are the law of the land and supreme to all laws passed by the national governments
Question 33
When a government provides for the public good, it:
Makes decisions that reflect a narrow set of social interests
Ensures that discrimination only applies to a few specific groups
Creates policies that benefit individuals, rather than society as a whole
Creates policies that benefit society as a whole, rather than specific individuals
Question 34
When did the first Africans arrive in the American colonies?
1607
1641
1683
1619
Question 35
Which central questions fueled the American Revolution?
Monarchical autonomy and autocratic freedom
British freedom and colonial rule
Colonial government and autocratic freedom
Colonial autonomy and monarchical rule
Question 36
Which characteristics do all classical liberal theories share?
Pessimism about individual behavior, group favored over the individual, heavily regulated economy, reason before religious faith
Pessimism about individual behavior, group favored over the individual, free-market economy, religious dogma over scientific reason
Optimism about individual behavior, individual favored over the group, free-market economy, reason before religious faith
Optimism about individual behavior, individual favored over the group, heavily regulated economy, religious dogma over scientific reason
Question 37
Which clause gives Congress the authority to make essential and appropriate laws to carry out its enumerated responsibilities?
Supremacy clause
Equal protection clause
Due process clause
Necessary and proper clause
Question 38
Which compromise resolved the issue of how to count slaves for representational purposes?
Three-Fifths Compromise
New Jersey Compromise
Virginia Compromise
Two-Thirds Compromise
Question 39
Which group was in favor of the ratification of the Constitution?
Anti-Constitutionalists
Antifederalists
Federalists
Constitutionalists
Question 40
Which of the following is an example of direct democracy?
Referendums
Congressional elections
Initiatives
A and C
Question 41
Which of the following doctrines aided in the justification of the exclusion of women from the political system?
Racial inequality
Protestantism
Coverture
Civilization
Question 42
Which of the following was not a power of the Congress under the Articles of Confederation?
Power to enact taxes
Power to coin money
Power to make treaties
Power to declare war
Question 43
Which of the following helped to expose the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation?
Bacon’s Rebellion
None of the above
Shays’s Rebellion
Revere’s Rebellion
Question 44
Which of the following plans proposed a system of government with a strong central government with three branches, and a legislature with proportional representation?
Virginia Plan
Massachusetts Plan
Rhode Island Plan
New Jersey Plan
Question 45
Which of the following plans proposed a system of government that maintained a confederation with a unicameral legislature with equal representation for each state?
Rhode Island Plan
New Jersey Plan
Virginia Plan
Massachusetts Plan
Question 46
Which of the following was a direct effect of the Three-Fifths Compromise?
Small states had significantly more representation in the House than they would have if slaves were not counted
Slaveholding states had significantly more representation in the House than they would have if slaves were not counted
None of the above
All non-White individuals in the United States were counted as three-fifths of a person for representation purposes
Question 47
Which of the Founders posited the belief that Blacks were innately inferior to Whites and called on science to demonstrate this inferiority?
Adams
Jefferson
Madison
Franklin
Question 48
Which Parliamentary act was the first to impose a direct tax on the colonists?
Quartering Act
Stamp Act
Sugar Act
Declaratory Act
Question 49
Which Supreme Court ruling resulted in a broad interpretation of the necessary and proper clause?
McCulloch v. Maryland [1819]
Barron v. Baltimore [1833]
Dred Scott v. Sandford [1857]
Hurtado v. California [1884]
Question 50
Why were the Antifederalists opposed to the Constitution?
All of the above
They feared a consolidated government
They opposed unlimited taxing power
It lacked a bill of rights

OSHA Training and Development
OSHA Training and Development
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1. In the past year at Carter’s Material Handling Equipment Manufacturing Company, eight employees experienced minor injuries (cuts) from handling metal parts. One employee lost 15 workdays after getting debris in his eye while grinding, six employees lost two days each due to back strains, and four welders were treated for minor burns. Select one of the injury types, and discuss the possible performance problems. Suggest one or more solutions for each performance problem.
Your response must be at least 200 words.
2. Imagine you are faced with developing a safety training class for a multi-lingual, multi-generational, and multi-ethnic workforce. Would you try to incorporate everyone’s needs into a single class, or would you try to develop separate classes to meet the needs of each demographic? Explain your choice.
Your response must be at least 200 words.
3. What is active learning? How could active learning principles be applied in a safety training course on machine guarding?
Your response must be at least 200 words.
4. What is peer learning? Describe how peer learning could be used in classroom training and in computer or Internet-based training.
Your response must be at least 200 words.
5. Discuss five possible financial benefits of safety training. Which one do you think creates the strongest argument? Which one is the weakest?
Your response must be at least 200 words.
6. A large research hospital is considering a new computer-based training course for lab safety. The total cost of the hospital’s current training program is $80,000 per year. If the new training program will reduce these costs to $60,000 per year, what is the maximum acceptable cost to initiate the program to reach the break-even point within three years? What is the return on investment for that scenario?
Your response must be at least 200 words.
7. How can the management of an organization contribute to a safety and health training program? What types of things can safety managers do to help guide management’s role in safety and health training?
Your response must be at least 200 words.
8. When designing and delivering training to adults, what are six key principles to keep in mind?
Your response must be at least 75 words.
9. What is the difference between education and training?
Your response must be at least 75 words.
10. Why is it important for health and safety training to be integrated with an organization’s safety and health program?
Your response must be at least 75 words.
11. Where does training fit within safety and health problem solving?
Your response must be at least 75 words.