Nursing

Assignment: Arts Integrated Unit Plan
Assignment: Arts Integrated Unit Plan
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Details:
Throughout this course, you have had the opportunity to research and implement a learning activity that is cross-curricular with social studies and the arts, along with appropriate instructional strategies, questioning strategies, and differentiation.
Part 1: Social Studies Unit Plan
For this benchmark, you will plan a weeklong unit using the “Social Studies Unit Plan.” The unit plan should include social studies integrated with the visual arts and require students to research a country of their choice. You may adapt any previous assignments and lesson plans in the creation of this mini-unit plan, as long as the lessons form a planned cohesive unit. The unit plan will focus on government and economics of the selected country, U.S. and world history (comparing the selected country to the U.S), and geography and social studies of the selected country.
Use the “Class Profile” for background information on your students in order to differentiate to meet the diverse needs of students.
Design the unit plan so that it:
Develops students’ abilities to make informed decisions in a culturally diverse democratic society and interdependent world.
Integrates visual arts to promote communication, inquiry, and engagement.
Incorporates responsible use of media, digital tools, and resources, including:
Virtual pen pal options with students from the selected country.
Safety measures for using the Internet in the classroom.
Research of performance and visual arts of the selected country.
How students can communicate and collaborate with students of other cultures.
Part 2: Rationale
Along with the unit, submit a 250-500 word rationale that explains the reasoning behind your instructional strategies and choices. Explain how you will use your findings in your future professional practice.
APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.

Knowledge of Foundational Concepts
Knowledge of Foundational Concepts
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Anatomy
Backward effects of left-sided heart failure include:
A. Pulmonary congestion
B. Jugular vein distention
C. Dependent edema in the legs
D. Bounding pulses
Anatomy
In performing a physical assessment, the nurse notes the patient has a “barrel” configuration to the chest. This is a consequence of:
A. Reduced intrapleural pressures
B. Bronchial airway expansion
C. Increased vital capacity
D. Increased residual lung volume
Anatomy
Ausculation of the chest reveals bilateral fine crackles in the bases bilaterally, indicating:
A. Right-sided heart failure
B. Left-sided heart failure
C. Pneumonia
D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Biology
The signs and symptoms of anemia are all related to what common pathophysiologic feature of the condition?
A. Increased oxygen consumption by tissues
B. Decreased blood oxygen content
C. Vasodilation
D. A shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve
Biology
In addition to hypertension, preeclampsia is characterized by:
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Fatigue and lower back pain
C. Protein in the urine and edema
D. Retinal changes and rates in the lungs
Biology
Common manifestations of bacterial pneumonia include all of the following except:
A. Fever
B. Productive Cough
C. Tachypnea
D. Hyperinflation
Biology
Closed drainage systems work to re-expand a lung after pneumothorax by:
A. Re-establishing the normal negative intrapleural pressure.
B. Creating a positive pressure in the pleural space
C. Removing excess fluid from the pleural space so that there is room for lung expansion.
D. Pulling oxygen into distal air sacs to re-expand lung tissue
Biology
Patients with chronic renal failure usually exhibit:
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hematomas
Biology
The diet of a patient in end-stage kidney disease is restricted in all of the following except:
A. Fluid
B. Potassium
C. Protein
D. Calories
Anatomy
Which of the following is true of the biological functions of progesterone?
A. Progesterone is the most important hormone associated with pregnancy.
B. Progesterone directs male sexual characteristics.
C. Levels of progesterone increases if the egg is not fertilized.
D. Levels of progesterone remain stable if the egg is not fertilized.
Anatomy
Which of the following is true of the biological functions of testosterone?
A. Testosterone is not secreted by the ovaries.
B. Testosterone is needed for development of female secondary sexual characteristics.
C. Testosterone stimulates ovulation.
D. Testosterone is needed for development of male secondary sexual characteristics.
Anatomy
Which of the following is true of the biological functions of estrone?
A. Estrone is required for proper development of male secondary sexual characteristics.
B. Level of estrogen degreases if the egg is not fertilized.
C. Estrone is required for proper development of female secondary sexual
characteristics.
D. Estrone affects only the reproductive organs.
Biology
What is the function of hemoglobin?
A. Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that is responsible for carrying oxygen to the cells of the body.
B. Hemoglobin is a lipid in red blood cells that is responsible for carrying oxygen to the cells of the body.
C. Hemoglobin is a protein in white blood cells that is responsible for carrying oxygen to the cells of the body.
D. Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that is not responsible for carrying carbon dioxide to the cells of the body.
Biology
Why is heat an effective means of sterilization?
A. Heat is an effective means of sterilization because it destroys the proteins of microbial life forms, including fungi, bacteria, and viruses.
B. Heat is an effective means of sterilization because it destroys the proteins of anaerobic microbial life forms, including fungi, bacteria, and viruses.
C. Heat is an effective means of sterilization because it destroys the lipids of microbial life forms, including fungi, bacteria, and viruses.
D. Both (B) and (C).
Chemistry:
List the enzymes whose levels are elevated in the blood serum following an MI.
A. CPK, LDH, AST, and SGOT
B. LDH, AST, and SGOT
C. CRE, AST, and ALT
D. None of the above
Chemistry
What is the physiological function of gluconeogenesis?
A. Gluconeogenesis is production of glucose from noncarbohydrate molecules in times when blood glucose levels are low. This ensures proper function of brain and red blood cells, which only use glucose as fuel.
B. Gluconeogenesis is production of glucose from noncarbohydrate molecules in times when blood glucose levels are high. This ensures proper function of brain and white blood cells, which only use glucose as fuel.
C. Gluconeogenesis is production of glucose from carbohydrate molecules in times when blood glucose levels are low. This ensures proper function of brain and red blood cells, which only use glucose as fuel.
D. None of the above
Chemistry
What effect does glycogen metabolism have on glucose levels?
A. Glycogen metabolism traps glucose within liver cells and increases storage of glucose in the form of glycogen. These processes decrease blood glucose levels.
B. Glycogen metabolism traps glucose within liver cells and increases storage of glucose in the form of glycogen. These processes increase blood glucose levels.
C. Glycogen metabolism releases glucose within liver cells and increases storage of glucose in the form of glycogen. These processes decrease blood glucose levels.
D. None of the above
Chemistry
Carbon monoxide binds tightly to the heme groups of hemoglobin and myoglobin. How does this affinity reflect the toxicity of carbon monoxide?
A. Since carbon monoxide binds the heme groups of hemoglobin, it is easily removed or replaced by oxygen. As a result, the effects of oxygen enhancement result in what divers call the “bends.”
B. Because carbon monoxide binds the heme groups of hemoglobin, it is easily removed or replaced by oxygen. As a result, the effects of oxygen deprivation result in suffocation.
C. Because carbon monoxide binds tightly to the heme groups of hemoglobin, it is not easily removed or replaced by oxygen. As a result, the effects of oxygen deprivation result in suffocation.
D. None of the above
Pathophysiology
Which of the following may be a reason to order an ABG on a patient?
A. The patient suddenly develops shortness of breath
B. An asthmatic is starting to show signs of tiring
C. A diabetic has developed Kussmaul’s respirations
D. All of the above
Pharmacology
How do sulfa drugs selectively kill bacteria while causing no harm to humans?
A. Folic acid is a vitamin required for the synthesis of a coenzyme needed to make the amino acid methionine and the purine and pyrimidine nitrogenious bases for DNA and RNA and folic acid is produced by humans.
B. Sulfa drug binds to the enzyme, no product is formed, folic acid is made and the biosynthesis of methionine and nitrogenous bases increases.
C. Humans are not harmed because they do not synthesize their own folic acid. It is obtained in the diet.
D. None of the above
Pharmacology
What occurs when glycogen metabolism is stimulated by insulin?
A. Insulin stimulates glycogen synthase, the first enzyme in glycogen synthesis.
B. Insulin stimulates glycogen synthase, the first enzyme in glycogen synthesis. It also stimulates removal of glucose from the bloodstream into cells and phosphorylation of glucose by the enzyme glucokinase.
C. Insulin stimulates glycogen synthase, the first enzyme in glycogen synthesis. It also stimulates uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into cells and phosphorylation of glucose by the enzyme glucokinase.
D. All of the above
Pharmacology
What is the medical application of cortisone? Cortisone is used to treat:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis, asthma, gastrointestinal disorders, and a variety of skin conditions.
B. Kidney disease, high blood pressure, and osteoporosis.
C. Muscle disorders, tuberculosis, and thyroid disorder.
D. All of the above
Anatomy
Oxygen saturation is likely to be lowest when an asthmatic with a diagnosis of pneumonia is positioned:
A. In a high Fowler position
B. Lying on the left side
C. Lying on the right side
D. Lying supine with the head of the bed flat

Chemistry
Laboratory test results indicative of thrombocytopenia, in addition to a low platelet count, would be:
A. Increased PT
B. Prolonged bleeding time and poor clot retraction.
C. Increased aPTT
D. Decreased RBC count.
Pharmacology
The purposes of epinephrine injection include all of the following except:
A. Stabilizing mast cell membranes.
B. Relaxing bronchial smooth muscle.
C. Supporting arterial blood pressure.
D. Blocking histamine receptors.
Pharmacology
Therapeutic interventions focused on increasing the oxygen supplied to the heart and decreasing the heart’s demand for oxygen include:
A. Antiplatelet drugs
B. Anticoagulants
C. Morphine sulphate
D. Thrombolytic drugs
Pharmacology
An intervention that would contribute toward the healing of a peptic ulcer is:
A. Steroid administration
B. Blocking or neutralizing of acid secretion
C. Surgical removal of the ulcer
D. Intravenous nutritional support
Pharmacology
Aspirin and NSAIDs are causative factors for the development of peptic ulcer disease because they:
A. Increase acid secretion
B. Allow proliferation of H. pylori
C. Damage the mucosal barrier
D. Alter platelet aggregation
Pharmacology
Your patient is interested in trying medication to improve low mood/depression. All of the following medications might be appropriate except:
A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
B. Amitriptyline
C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
Knowledge of Foundational Concepts
Knowledge of Foundational Concepts

Discussion: Symptoms of gallstones
Discussion: Symptoms of gallstones
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Question 21
A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:
a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi
b. Gallbladder
c. Cystic duct
d. Common bile duct
Question 22
A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation This condition is referred to as:
a. Infective enteropathy
b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
c. Mucoviscidosis
d. Ileus
Question 23
For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?
a. Pyloric
b. Lower esophageal
c. Upper esophageal
d. Gastric
Question 24
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:
a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.
c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
d. viral infection of the gallbladder.
Question 25
A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine This type of obstruction is referred to as:
a. Prolapse
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusception
d. Imperforation
Question 26
A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer
a. Infectious
b. Cushing
c. Ischemic
d. Curling
Question 27
Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:
a. severity.
b. location of lesions.
c. patient’s age.
d. signs and symptoms.
Question 28
Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):
a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux
b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux
c. Congenital anomaly
d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia
Question 29
The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:
a. Vomiting and distention
b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst
c. Dehydration and epigastric pain
d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding
Question 30
The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?
a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypobilirubinemia
d. Ascites
Question 31
A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea
a. Motility
b. Hypotonic
c. Secretory
d. Osmotic
Question 32
Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?
a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations
b. Abdominal pain
c. Malabsorption
d. Diarrhea
Question 33
A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing He probably has:
a. Pyloric stenosis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Gastric cancer
d. Achalasia
Question 34
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:
a. alpha cells.
b. beta cells.
c. acinar cells.
d. islets of Langerhans.
Question 35
Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Discussion: Autosomal Dominant Inheritance.
Discussion: Autosomal Dominant Inheritance.
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QUESTION 8: Chapter 8, Overview of Genetics and Genomics in Nursing
Mr. Wayne is a 38-year-old man with a significant family history of elevated cholesterol levels. His father died at age 42 from a massive heart attack secondary to elevated cholesterol and triglycerides, and two of his older siblings are currently taking medications to lower their cholesterol levels. Mr. Wayne makes an appointment to discuss his risk for hypercholesterolemia. The nurse recognizes that Mr. Wayne is at risk for familial hypercholesterolemia because this is an autosomal dominant inherited condition. (Learning Objective 2)
a. Describe the pattern of autosomal dominant inheritance.
b. Mr. Wayne asks what chance his children have of developing familial hypercholesterolemia. How should the nurse respond?
c. Explain the phenomenon of penetrance observed in autosomal dominant inheritance.
QUESTION 9: Chapter 9, Chronic Illness and Disability
Mr. Edwards is 20-year-old male patient who is admitted for treatment of recurring pyelonephritis (kidney infection) and surgical treatment of a urinary stricture, which has decreased the urinary stream. Mr. Edwards has paraplegia; he is paralyzed from the waist down secondary to an automobile accident when he was 16. He came by ambulance to the hospital, leaving his wheelchair and wheelchair pressure-relieving cushion at home. According to the nursing history, the patient is a nonsmoker and he does not drink alcohol or take any illegal drugs. (Learning Objective 5)
a. What nursing considerations should be made for Mr. Edwards related to his disability?
b. What health promotion and prevention education does Mr. Edwards need?
Mr. Wayne asks what chance his children have of developing familial hypercholesterolemia. How should the nurse respond?
Mr. Wayne asks what chance his children have of developing familial hypercholesterolemia. How should the nurse respond?

Assignment: leisure and recreation
Assignment: leisure and recreation
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1. Many forms of leisure and recreation have shifted from spontaneous or informal activities to formal and organized ones true or false
Answer True
False
2. The care of the elderly is primarily a task entrusted to the family.
Answer True
False
3. true or false The United States has the lowest infant mortality rate in the world
Answer True
False
4. is it true or false that The media have always been an instrument of the state as well as a tool for social change.
Answer True
False
5. Under certain conditions, the Federal Communication Commission allows a single company to own every media outlet in a single market.
Answer True
False
6. The nature of health can be defined by its social rather than biological context.
Answer True
False
7. What led to the increase in leisure time in the twentieth century?
Answer
a. Changes in values and norms made leisure seem more desirable.
b. increases in industrial productivity and time-saving technologies
c. decreases in family size
d. urbanization
e. increases in life span and better health care
8. Revolutionary social change is often the result of technological developments.
Answer True
False
9. The tragedy of the commons is a kind of social dilemma in which:
Answer
a. science needs to come up with better technical solutions to environmental problems.
b. individually rational behavior leads to collective disaster.
c. individuals must be convinced to contribute to a collective resource that they may or may not benefit from.
d. fortunately most people are not motivated by self-interest.
e. the more critical the situation becomes, the more likely people are to cooperate with one another.
10. The spread of material and nonmaterial culture to new cultural groups, even when there is no migration of people, is called:
Answer
a. postmodernism.
b. cultural leveling.
c. cultural lag.
d. cultural diffusion.
e. culture shock.
11. Which of the following people would be most likely to join a social movement?
Answer
a. a young woman who attends college and is involved in campus government and volunteers for local and state political campaigns
b. a disaffected loner, taking lots of math classes, but without a real social life or a good outlet to make friends or form romantic relationships
c. a young man from the lower class who gets a job in a campus cafeteria and notices how well off the students he serves are
d. an average student who spends a lot of time smoking marijuana and switches majors several times
e. a single mother who works nights as a stocker at a grocery store and has relatives both in the deep south and on the west coast
12. How does the U.S. Census Bureau define “family”?
Answer
a. two or more individuals related by blood, marriage, or adoption who share a household
b. a social group bound to one another through legal, biological, or emotional ties
c. people who are emotionally and/or materially interdependent
d. people who share a household
e. parents living with minor children
13. Death and illness in a population is bad for productivity of the system and is a destabilizing force. Which theory takes this approach to medicine?
Answer
a. sick role
b. ecological
c. structural functionalism
d. symbolic interactionism
e. conflict
14. Which of the following is NOT considered to be protected speech?
Answer
a. information about bombs and weapons
b. hateful language directed at racial and ethnic minorities
c. pictures taken of celebrities on public property
d. information about the personal lives of political candidates
e. material considered to be obscene
15. If an urban neighborhood were to suddenly develop an assortment of upscale restaurants, coffee shops, hip boutiques, and art galleries, then the neighborhood is:
Answer
a. becoming gentrified.
b. growing into an edge city.
c. reacting to the rural rebound.
d. changing patterns of pollution and resource use.
e. experiencing smart growth.
16. Whereas the top causes of death in the United States are ________________, those in the developing world are continually affected by the threat of _______________.
Answer
a. acute; curative
b. preventive; crisis
c. preventive; chronic
d. chronic; acute
e. crisis; acute
17. Jorge has learned that he has a mental illness. Since then, he has begun to act according to the illness, in ways that he thinks others expect someone with a mental illness to act. Which theory of health and illness best explains his situation?
Answer
a. conflict
b. stigma
c. symbolic interactionism
d. sick role
e. doctor–patient confidentiality
18. How does Robert Bellah believe that style enclaves are different from “real communities”?
Answer
a. They tend to remain focused on shared interests rather than on the larger community.
b. They usually lead to more altruistic behaviors and an interest in others.
c. They have greater community spirit.
d. They tend to be integrated into a larger social group.
e. all of the above
19. How do rates of domestic abuse differ across racial groups?
Answer
a. They are lower among Asian Americans than in other racial groups.
b. They are about equal across racial groups.
c. They are higher among non-English-speaking individuals than among English speakers.
d. They are lower among immigrants from Southeast Asia than in other groups.
e. They are higher among African Americans and Hispanics than in other racial groups.
20. Activities that are recreation today were necessities in the past.
Answer True
False
21. Real environmental justice would mean that poor communities would not have to choose between economic development and a healthy environment.
Answer True
False
22. C. Wright Mills used the term “the sociological imagination” to refer to important interconnections between personal troubles and public issues. What would he have said about deprivation amplification?
Answer
a. It didn’t really apply to a sociological imagination.
b. Both public issues and personal troubles contribute to poor health and so work needs to be done at both levels to more properly address disease rates.
c. Neither public issues nor personal troubles contribute to poor health and so work done at these levels would not address disease rates any differently.
d. Personal troubles cause poor health and so work needs to be done to more properly address disease rates.
e. Public issues cause poor health and so work needs to be done to more properly address disease rates.
23. According to conflict theory, how does the nuclear family facilitate exploitation?
Answer
a. by making geographic mobility possible
b. by employing members of other social groups to do its dirty work
c. by exploiting the working class, whose products it consumes
d. through the use of nannies and domestic workers
e. through a sexual division of labor within the home
24. All successful social movements are eventually incorporated into institutions.
Answer True
False
25. Which of the following is a basic demographic variable?
Answer
a. agglomeration
b. dystopia
c. pluralism
d. migration
e. sustainable development
26. Which of the following sounds most like recreation, as your textbook defines it?
Answer
a. a magician who puts up flyers and works at children’s birthday parties
b. a guitarist on tour who has to sell t-shirts and CDs at the merchandise table after each show
c. a student’s time between getting out of class and going to work
d. the “recess” period given to children in primary school, when they can spend unstructured time on the playground
e. someone learning the calculus required to compute the amount and type of fuel needed to power a model rocket that he wants to launch in a par
27. Paolo broke a finger playing soccer. He was seen by a medical practitioner very soon after the accident. His ailment would be classified as a chronic illness.
Answer True
False
28. The United States is the only industrialized nation without some nationalized health care.
Answer True
False
29. According to relative deprivation theory, why do people join social movements?
Answer
a. They are ordered to do so by the government.
b. Social movements are good places to meet people and network.
c. They are filling a psychological need to belong to something.
d. Joining a social movement is a rational response to inequality or oppression.
e. Social movements are a necessary part of a system of social stratification.
30. Because many media companies are now global, the content that they produce reflects a wide range of Western and nonwestern values.
Answer True
False
31. In Lincoln, Nebraska, in the summer of 2009, two groups held rallies about health care, one supporting and one opposing legislation proposed to overhaul America’s health care system. At one point, the two groups went beyond holding signs and shouting slogans and tempers flared. Objects were thrown, shoving matches broke out, and the police had to step in to break up the:
Answer
a. social movement.
b. rally.
c. contagion.
d. march.
e. riot.
32. As an agent of socialization, who does the family influence?
Answer
a. only children
b. everyone
c. women
d. the elderly
e. none of the above
33. How do people with an anthropocentric relationship with the environment perceive nature?
Answer
a. as something to be preserved
b. as the ultimate source of meaning
c. as something to be studied and examined before it is tainted by human activity
d. as a place to find spiritual truth
e. as something to be conquered
34. More recently, epidemiologists are studying the role of temperature increases in the spread of diseases globally. Specifically they have found that increases in temperature can also increase pathogen-carrying agents called:
Answer
a. infectious agents.
b. mosquitoes.
c. pathogens.
d. ecosystem deterrents.
e. vector organisms.
35. A woman who recently moved from New York to North Carolina had a year of probation left from a fraud conviction, but was told that North Carolina would not supervise her probation because she was guilty of “lewd and lascivious association.” Specifically she lived with her boyfriend. She later said that, when she moved to North Carolina, it was the first time she had heard of:
Answer
a. divorce.
b. intentional communities.
c. cohabitation.
d. noncustodial parents.
e. symbolic interactionism.
36. In the early 1900s, what percentage of Americans lived in cities?
Answer
a. 10 percent
b. 99 percent
c. 6 percent
d. 40 percent
e. 90 percent
37. If the vast majority of people in the cities and towns of Riverside County, California, were to commute to work in Los Angeles, these communities would be edge cities.
Answer True
False
38. The movement that attempts to rebuild group values and a sense of collective responsibility is called:
Answer
a. socialism.
b. functionalism.
c. Marxism.
d. communitarianism.
e. textual poaching.
39. The increasing number of Americans who move out of state to attend college will decrease the importance of ____________, assuming that students start new romantic relationships in school.
Answer
a. exogamy
b. homogamy
c. miscegenation
d. monogamy
e. propinquity
40. The documentary “Unnatural Causes” explores the lives of several Louisville, Kentucky residents at different socio-economic status levels and from various racial backgrounds. It found that poorer Louisville residents suffered greater rates of illness and died earlier than wealthier ones. What is this an example of?
Answer
a. anomie
b. deprivation amplification
c. food deserts
d. impression management
e. environmental racism
41. In the past, which group of people had the time and resources necessary to pursue recreational activity?
Answer
a. the middle class and the upper class
b. only the wealthy
c. only the clergy
d. almost everyone
e. only the very poor
42. Propinquity refers to:
Answer
a. the appeal of the family.
b. geographical proximity.
c. the desire for the exotic and the foreign.
d. a fixed set of beliefs.
e. the tendency to seek people with similar backgrounds.
43. The “bureaucratization” stage of a social movement:
Answer
a. in the U.S. labor movement, happened when the AFL and the CIO merged.
b. always happens at the beginning.
c. happened during the gay rights movement with the Stonewall riot.
d. happened for the environmental rights movement with the release of the film An Inconvenient Truth
e. has not yet happened for the gay rights movement.
44. Leisure and work are complementary activities. What links them together?
Answer
a. the weekend
b. consumption
c. children and the family
d. food
e. democracy
45. According to Georg Simmel, how do city dwellers relate to one another?
Answer
a. by constantly monitoring one another in order to detect violations of norms and values
b. through restrictive constraints on personal behavior
c. in terms of class-based loyalties
d. through family connections
e. in objective and instrumental terms
46. Hunger remains widespread in many parts of the world, but not in the United States.
Answer True
False
47. The Mall of America has more than 10,000 workers, occupies more than 4 million square feet, and receives more than 40 million visitors each year. However, the mall offers more than just shopping. Concerts, plays, story times for children, flight simulators, and an indoor aquarium are just a few of the elements of what the mall calls its “retail experience.” What point does this illustrate?
Answer
a. Alternative media sources are driving Americans to consider new ideas and experience life differently.
b. Rather than paying for things, more and more Americans are now making their own fun.
c. Shopping is now as much about entertainment as it is about purchasing things.
d. Many forms of leisure and recreation seem to have shifted from organized and formal activities to spontaneous or informal activities.
e. Americans are increasingly less likely to go out for a dose of the arts and more likely to stay home and enjoy performances in front of their home entertainment centers.
48. The Golden Gate Bridge in San Francisco is an icon of the city by the bay and a world renowned tourist destination. It is also the number one suicide magnet in the world. Which theoretical explanation for suicide would best explain the high rates of suicide at the bridge?
Answer
a. psychological
b. anomic
c. contagion
d. selectionan
e. ecological
49. What sport is immensely popular in almost every part of the world EXCEPT the United States?
Answer
a. track and field
b. basketball
c. baseball
d. soccer
e. hockey
50. Media are one of the United States’ most profitable exports.
Answer True
False
51. The 2010 Health Care Reform Act (formally called the “Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act”) represents:
Answer
a. the medical establishment.
b. the importance of medical systems in the United States.
c. a sweeping overhaul of the U.S. health care system.
d. patients’ power and status.
e. doctor–patient confidentiality.
52. How would a sociologist define “family”?
Answer
a. two or more individuals related by blood, marriage, or adoption who share a household
b. both the nuclear family and the extended family to the extent that family members share emotional and material responsibilities
c. almost any social group so long as they share responsibilities for raising children
d. an interdependent social group bound by legal, biological, or emotional ties
e. a group of related people who share a household
53. A sociologist who examines how cities are organized or the migration of human populations is studying:
Answer
a. social ecology.
b. environmental attitudes.
c. renewable resources.
d. environmental justice.
e. grassroots environmentalism.
54. The transformation of culture over time is called:
Answer
a. social iteration.
b. social revolution.
c. cultural evolution.
d. social change.
e. cultural translation.
55. The Industrial Revolution made cities necessary, as a large number of people had to be brought in to work in factories, but ever since then many people have found city life attractive. Why?
Answer
a. Cities offer a profound sense of security.
b. Cities bring people together and help to develop community.
c. Cities offer a high degree of personal freedom.
d. Cities help people develop deep and intense relationships.
e. all of the above
56. Health and illness are mostly physical states that do not include other life aspects such as mental well-being or changing cultural beliefs.
Answer True
False
57. In countries where ____________ has happened, there no longer is a “natural increase” in population.
Answer
a. the Industrial Revolution
b. human exemptionalism
c. the demographic freefall
d. extreme water pollution
e. the demographic transition
58. Family friends who are referred to as “Aunt” or “Uncle” are examples of:
Answer
a. the Full House effect.
b. fictive kin.
c. polygyny.
d. extended families.
e. homogamy.
59. Some cell phone providers are now offering hardware, like small laptops, and media to play on it, like songs and TV shows. Phone companies believe that each product they offer will encourage and promote other products, as phones can easily send data to laptops, which can store media that can easily be watched on phones, and so on. What is this called?
Answer
a. synergy
b. the hypodermic needle theory
c. conglomeration
d. media concentration
e. bandwidth
60. A typical media conglomerate might include which of the following?
Answer
a. a book and magazine publisher
b. radio and television broadcasters
c. a sports franchise
d. none of the above
e. all of the above
61. How has technology enabled the shift from spontaneous to organized recreation?
Answer
a. It has made organized recreation more fun.
b. It has made it easier to organize people.
c. It has made organized recreation more competitive.
d. It has produced the tools necessary for organized recreation.
e. It has made shopping easier.
62. Is medicine in the United States a social institution?
Answer
a. Yes, because organizations like the American Medical Association set policy and shape definitions of health and illness throughout the nation.
b. Yes, because doctors need licenses to practice.
c. No, because it is more of an ideal than a social institution.
d. No, because organizations like the American Medical Association are brick and mortar places and not really widescale patterns of interaction.
e. Yes, because a study was done that polled Americans which reported that it is.
63. When a large number of people either collectively or individually engage in similar behaviors, sociologists call it:
Answer
a. collective behavior.
b. contagion.
c. mass behavior.
d. a social movement.
e. riots.
64. Although the hacky sack was invented in 1972, it exploded in popularity in the middle of the 1990s and is now somewhat less common. This is a good example of a:
Answer
a. social movement.
b. cultural diffusion.
c. fashion.
d. fad.
e. social dilemma.
Figure 13.1 The Concentration of Media Outlets
According to Figure 13.1, Google corporation has acquired a very large number of otherwise unrelated businesses in a variety of different sectors. For example, it is the owner of the largest wind farm on Earth. This process of acquiring businesses is called:
Answer
a. conglomeration.
b. synergy.
c. merger.
d. concentration.
e. fourth estate.
Talcott Parsons researched this from a structural functionalist perspective:
Answer
a. the medical establishment
b. medical policy
c. doctors’ power and status
d. doctor–patient confidentiality
e. the sick role
67. What do demographers call larger urban areas, those with more than one million inhabitants?
Answer
a. global cities
b. megacities
c. Metropolitan Statistical Areas
d. global density centers
e. metropolises
68. What do the 19th Amendment to the Constitution, Nazism, birth control, and Protestantism all have in common?
Answer
a. They all involve social stratification.
b. They all began in the twentieth century.
c. They all have had a negative effect on society.
d. They all are the products of a single charismatic leader.
e. They all are the products of social movements.
69. The modern era is characterized by improvised or do-it-yourself forms of family.
Answer True
False
70. When a Star Trek fan club raises money for an animal welfare organization that is sponsored by the Star Trek actor William Shatner, what is this evidence of?
Answer
a. the inability of such groups to contribute to the common good
b. the fragmented nature of such groups
c. the narrow focus of a lifestyle enclave
d. the lack of real community in such groups
e. the ability of a lifestyle enclave to develop a larger sense of social responsibility
71. Although the family always influences its members, it is not always a very consistent influence because:
Answer
a. changes outside the family impact its members.
b. inequality between siblings changes the way that each child is socialized.
c. birth order changes the family experience.
d. divorce and remarriage can radically alter the way a family socializes its members at different points in time.
e. all of the above
72. Epidemiologists are studying global climate change and disease and have found a link between temperature increases and the spread of diseases.
Answer True
False
73. Although critics might see soap operas as brainwashing their viewers to accept a particular version of gender roles, some sociologists would insist that the people who produce soap operas actually have to be constantly attentive to the desires of their audience and are to some extent responding to their audience. If you believe this, then you probably see soap opera viewers as:
Answer
a. the bourgeoisie.
b. an active audience.
c. helpless dupes.
d. collectors.
e. new voices in the media.
74. What do sociologists call the tendency to marry someone of a similar background?
Answer
a. endogamy
b. heterogamy
c. in-group orientation
d. exogamy
e. romance medians
75. Seagram’s, a company best known for its gin, also owns Universal Records. This is an example of what trend in the media industry?
Answer
a. antidisestablishmentarianism
b. inequality
c. conglomeration
d. deregulation
e. monopoly
76. Regressive or reactionary social movements are always:
Answer
a. the most common type of social movement.
b. motivated by prejudice or hate.
c. successful only when they use violence.
d. working to make sure things stay the same, or even to turn them back to an earlier point in history.
e. motivated by a desire to protect the environment.
77. How does the birth of children change the gendered division of labor within the household?
Answer
a. It makes the gendered division of labor more traditional.
b. It has no influence on the gendered division of labor.
c. It gets fathers more involved.
d. It makes the gendered division of labor more traditional in families that were always somewhat traditional, but it has no effect on those who had a more progressive division of labor.
e. It brings the extended family into the household more.
78. Popular urban legends sometimes circulate for years.
Answer True
False
79. An office has a “coffee fund,” an old coffee can where people can toss change anytime they pour a cup of coffee. The fund can be used to buy new coffee for the office when the supply runs out. However, one individual always takes coffee and never puts any money in the fund, making him a:
Answer
a. prisoner.
b. free rider.
c. dilemma.
d. resource mobilizer.
e. contrarian.
80 Which of the following would NOT be a family as sociologists define the term?
Answer
a. a married couple who maintain separate apartments on different sides of Central Park in New York City
b. a lesbian couple who have a child using a sperm donor
c. a couple who remarries and shares a household with children from their previous marriages
d. an unmarried couple who never have children
e. two men who enter a business partnership in which one runs a retail outlet while the other produces products to sell in it
81. When an individual describes someone who is related to them biologically as “not really kin,” what are they saying?
Answer
a. The relative has not exercised her rights or fulfilled her obligations as a family member.
b. The relative is part of the extended, rather than the nuclear family.
c. The relative doesn’t belong to the relevant voluntary associations.
d. The relative has died.
e. all of the above
82. What feature of fan-staged encounters can be problematic?
Answer
a. how powerless a fan is in such circumstances
b. the brief and inadequate nature of the contact
c. the amount of money that they cost
d. they usually occur without the consent of the celebrity
e. all of the above

Discussion: Neck Pain/Stiffness
Discussion: Neck Pain/Stiffness
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Question 7
A 19-year old-college student presents to the emergency room with fever, headache, and neck pain/stiffness She is concerned about the possibility of meningococcal meningitis Several of her dorm mates have been vaccinated, but she hasn’t been Which of the following physical examination descriptions is most consistent with meningitis?
A) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck supple with full range of motion
B) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck with paraspinous muscle spasm and limited range of motion to the right
C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc margins, neck tender to palpation, unable to perform range of motion
D) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc margins, neck supple with full range of motion
Question 8
A 58-year-old gardener comes to your office for evaluation of a new lesion on her upper chest The lesion appears to be “stuck on” and is oval, brown, and slightly elevated with a flat surface It has a rough, wartlike texture on palpation Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?
A) Actinic keratosis
B) Seborrheic keratosis
C) Basal cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
Question 9
A patient presents for evaluation of a cough Which of the following anatomic regions can be responsible for a cough?
A) Ophthalmologic
B) Auditory
C) Cardiac
D) Endocrine
Question 10
A 72-year-old retired truck driver comes to the clinic with his wife for evaluation of hearing loss He has noticed some decreased ability to hear what his wife and grandchildren are saying to him He admits to lip-reading more He has a history of noise exposure in his young adult years: He worked as a sound engineer at a local arena and had to attend a lot of concerts Based on this information, what is the most likely finding regarding his hearing acuity?
A) Loss of acuity for middle-range sounds
B) Increase of acuity for low-range sounds
C) Loss of acuity for high-range sounds
D) Increase of acuity for high-range sounds
Question 11
MrsAnderson presents with an itchy rash which is raised and appears and disappears in various locations Each lesion lasts for many minutes What most likely accounts for this rash?
A) Insect bites
B) Urticaria, or hives
C) Psoriasis
D) Purpura
Question 12
A new mother is concerned that her child occasionally “turns blue” On further questioning, she mentions that this is at her hands and feet She does not remember the child’s lips turning blue She is otherwise eating and growing well What would you do now?
A) Reassure her that this is normal
B) Obtain an echocardiogram to check for structural heart disease and consult cardiology
C) Admit the child to the hospital for further observation
D) Question the validity of her story
Question 13
An 89-year-old retired school principal comes for an annual check-up She would like to know whether or not she should undergo a screening colonoscopy She has never done this before Which of the following factors should not be considered when discussing whether she should go for this screening test?
A) Life expectancy
B) Time interval until benefit from screening accrues
C) Patient preference
D) Current age of patient
Question 14
You are speaking to an 8th grade class about health prevention and are preparing to discuss the ABCDEs of melanoma Which of the following descriptions correctly defines the ABCDEs?
A) A = actinic; B = basal cell; C = color changes, especially blue; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution
B) A = asymmetry; B = irregular borders; C = color changes, especially blue; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution
C) A = actinic; B = irregular borders; C = keratoses; D = dystrophic nails; E = evolution
D) A = asymmetry; B = regular borders; C = color changes, especially orange; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

Assignment: Gaps in Life Model
Assignment: Gaps in Life Model
Piedra and Engstrom (2009) noted how the life model “remains general and unspecific regarding factors that affect immigrant families” (p. 272). Recall that there will never be one or a model that can fully explain a phenomenon or lay out all the steps and procedures when working with complex issues that clients present to social workers. Recognizing this, Piedra and Engstrom selected another theory in the immigration literature—segmented assimilation theory. They identified concepts from segmented assimilation theory to “fill in” the gaps that the life model does not address.
In this Discussion, you examine gaps in the life model by applying it to your field experience.
Post:
Using an example from your fieldwork experience (Georgia Department of Family and Children Services) and a diverse population you encountered at the agency (for example, in Piedra and Engstrom’s article, it was immigrant families), respond to the following:
Identify and describe the diverse population and the unique characteristics and/or the distinctive needs of the population in 3 to 4 brief sentences.
Explain how the life model can be applied for the population.
Explain where the gaps are in applying the life model for this population.
When looking at the gaps, explain which might be helpful in filling the gaps of the life model when working with this population.
https://www.jstor.org/stable/30015414?seq=1#page_scan_tab_contents
Piedra and Engstrom (2009) noted how the life model “remains general and unspecific regarding factors that affect immigrant families” (p. 272). Recall that there will never be one or a model that can fully explain a phenomenon or lay out all the steps and procedures when working with complex issues that clients present to social workers. Recognizing this, Piedra and Engstrom selected another theory in the immigration literature—segmented assimilation theory. They identified concepts from segmented assimilation theory to “fill in” the gaps that the life model does not address.

Lab: Water Quality and Contamination
Lab: Water Quality and Contamination
You are required to write a complete laboratory report that covers all three experiments for “,” using knowledge gained throughout the course. To begin, download the and utilize this form to ensure proper formatting and inclusion of all required material. Additionally, view the before beginning this assignment, which will illustrate what a Final Lab Report should look like. You must use at least four scholarly sources and your lab manual to support your points. The report must be six to ten pages in length (excluding the title and reference pages) and formatted according to APA style. For information regarding APA samples and tutorials, visit the Ashford Writing Center, located within the Learning Resources tab on the left navigation toolbar.
The Final Lab Report must contain the following eight sections in this order:
Title Page – This page must include the title of your report, your name, course name, instructor, and date submitted.
Abstract – This section should provide a brief summary of the methods, results, and conclusions. It should allow the reader to see what was done, how it was done, and the results. It should not exceed 200 words and should be the last part written (although it should still appear right after the title page).
Introduction – This section should include background information on water quality and an overview of why the experiment was conducted. It should first contain background information of similar studies previously conducted. This is accomplished by citing existing literature from similar experiments. Secondly, it should provide an objective or a reason why the experiment is being done. Why do we want to know the answer to the question we are asking? Finally, it should end with all three hypotheses from your Week Two experiments. These hypotheses should not be adjusted to reflect the “right” answer. Simply place your previous hypotheses in the report here. You do not lose points for an inaccurate hypothesis; scientists often revise their hypotheses based on scientific evidence following the experiments.
Materials and Methods – This section should provide a detailed description of the materials used in your experiment and how they were used. A step-by-step rundown of your experiment is necessary; however, it should be done in paragraph form, not in a list format. The description should be exact enough to allow for someone reading the report to replicate the experiment, however, it should be in your own words and not simply copied and pasted from the lab manual.
Results – This section should include the data and observations from the experiment. All tables and graphs should be present in this section. In addition to the tables, you must describe the data in text; however, there should be no personal opinions or discussion outside of the results located within this area.
Discussion – This section should interpret your data and provide conclusions. Discuss the meanings of your findings in this area. Was your hypothesis accepted or rejected, and how are you able to determine this? Did the results generate any future questions that might benefit from a new experiment? Were there any outside factors (i.e., temperature, contaminants, time of day) that affected your results? If so, how could you control for these in the future?
Conclusions – This section should provide a brief summary of your work.
References – List references used in APA format as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

Assignment: musical scene transformation
Assignment: musical scene transformation
Choose one:
1. Scenes: Choose one of the following three seminal rock cities—Memphis, Tennessee, New York City, or Lost Angeles—an describe how the musical scene changed over the period of time covered by this course. Refer to those articles in your readings that discuss music in each city, and discuss the career of musicians associated with that musical scene, as well as the music businesses that may be found there (this could include radio, recording companies, recording studios, or well-known clubs).
OR
3. Style and Influence. Pick two major figures/bands from two different eras; the earlier figure must have a demonstrable influence on the latter. Discuss the career of the earlier musician(s) and how the later figure(s) modeled themselves upon the earlier one. Discuss as well how the later figure(s) expanded on the earlier style or took it in a different direction. How did each musician or band relate to the music business as it existed in that era?
Must be 2-3 pages
A Few Formatting Guidelines:
Citations:
If you cite an article from the reader, just use “author, shortened form of article title”; e.g. Peter Guralnick, “Portraits in Blues,” Music 9 reader.
If you chose to cite anything outside of your reader or long list, use MLA style
I’ve given examples on the syllabus as how to cite youtube videos and songs
No authorless citations! (Wikipedia)
Robert Christgau, “Chuck Berry.” US punctuation INSIDE
Robert Christgau, ‘Chuck Berry’. UK punctuation OUTSIDE
Songs with quotes (as in articles or book chapters)
“Heartbreak Hotel”
Albums in italics (as in book titles)
The Beatles’s Revolver
1. Scenes: Choose one of the following three seminal rock cities—Memphis, Tennessee, New York City, or Lost Angeles—an describe how the musical scene changed over the period of time covered by this course. Refer to those articles in your readings that discuss music in each city, and discuss the career of musicians associated with that musical scene, as well as the music businesses that may be found there (this could include radio, recording companies, recording studios, or well-known clubs).

Assignment: Family Health Assessment
Assignment: Family Health Assessment
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Family Assessment Part II View RubricDue Date: Feb 17, 2019 23:59:59 Max Points: 150 Details: Refer back to the interview and evaluation you conducted in the Topic 2 Family Health Assessment assignment. Identify the social determinates of health (SDOH) contributing to the family’s health status. In a 750-1,000-word paper, create a plan of action to incorporate health promotion strategies for this family. Include the following:
Describe the SDOH that affect the family health status. What is the impact of these SDOH on the family? Discuss why these factors are prevalent for this family.
Based on the information gathered through the family health assessment, recommend age-appropriate screenings for each family member. Provide support and rationale for your suggestions.
Choose a health model to assist in creating a plan of action. Describe the model selected. Discuss the reasons why this health model is the best choice for this family. Provide rationale for your reasoning.
Using the model, outline the steps for a family-centered health promotion. Include strategies for communication.
Cite at least three peer-reviewed or scholarly sources to complete this assignment. Sources should be published within the last 5 years and appropriate for the assignment criteria.Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.
Family Assessment Part II 1 Unsatisfactory 0.00%2 Less than Satisfactory 75.00%3 Satisfactory 79.00%4 Good 89.00%5 Excellent 100.00%80.0 %Content20.0 %SDOH Affecting Family and Family Health StatusSDOH affecting family health status, and the direct impact to the family, are not presented.SDOH affecting family health status are partially presented. SDOH listed are not relevant to the family. The direct impact to the family, and why the factors are prevalent to the family, are unclear. There are inaccuracies.Key SDOH affecting family health status are summarized. The SDOH identified are relevant to the family. The direct impact to the family, and why the factors are prevalent to the family, are generally discussed. More support or rationale is needed in some areas.The overall SDOH affecting family health status are accurately identified and described. The SDOH identified are relevant to the family. The direct impact to the family, and why the factors are prevalent to the family, are discussed. The SDOH directly affecting family health status are relevant, accurately identified and thoroughly described. The direct impact to the family, and why the factors are prevalent to the family, are discussed in detail. The discussion is well supported and illustrates insight into SDOH and their effect on family health status.20.0 %Age-Appropriate Screening RecommendationsAge-appropriate screenings are not presented.Screenings are presented for some family members. The screenings are not age appropriate. Screenings are not relevant to the information gathered through family health assessment. Screenings are presented for each family member. Screenings are generally age appropriate, but entirely not relevant based on the information gathered through family health assessment. More rationale and support is required.Screenings presented for each family member are age appropriate. Screenings are relevant and based on the information gathered through family health assessment. Some minor rationale or support is needed.Screenings presented for each family member are age appropriate and highly relevant. Screenings correlate to the information gathered through family health assessment. Strong rationale and support is presented.20.0 %Assessment of Health ModelA health model to assist in the creation of a plan of action is not presented. The model chosen is not a health model.A health model is selected to assist in creating a plan of action. The description of the model is incomplete. It is unclear why the chosen model is best for this family.A health model is selected and described. A summary of how the model will assist in creating a plan of action is presented. A general overview for why it is best for this family is provided. More rationale and support is required.A health model is selected and described. A discussion of how the model will assist in creating a plan of action is presented. Reasons for why it is best for this family are provided. Some rationale or support is needed.A health model is selected and thoroughly described. A detailed discussion of how the model will assist in creating a plan of action is presented. Reasons for why it is best for this family are clearly outlined. Strong rationale and support are provided to support reasoning.20.0 %Application of Health ModelFamily-centered health promotion using selected health model is omitted. Steps for a family-centered health promotion are partially presented. The health promotion is not based on the health model. Significant aspects are missing. There are major inaccuracies.The health model is used to create a general family-centered health promotion. The steps to achieve the desired outcome require more detail to illustrate a clear plan of action. A general plan for communication with the family is presented. More rationale and support is required.The health model is used to create a relevant family-centered health promotion. The steps to achieve the desired outcome are illustrated. Strategies for communication with the family are presented.The health model is used to create a relevant and viable family-centered health promotion. The steps to achieve the desired outcome are described in detail. Appropriate strategies for communication with the family are clearly presented. The health promotion is well-designed and demonstrates an ability to assimilate findings and appropriately apply theoretical knowledge to achieve desired outcomes.15.0 %Organization and Effectiveness 5.0 %Thesis Development and PurposePaper lacks any discernible overall purpose or organizing claim.Thesis is insufficiently developed or vague. Purpose is not clear.Thesis is apparent and appropriate to purpose.Thesis is clear and forecasts the development of the paper. Thesis is descriptive and reflective of the arguments and appropriate to the purpose.Thesis is comprehensive and contains the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear.15.0 %Organization and Effectiveness 5.0 %Argument Logic and ConstructionStatement of purpose is not justified by the conclusion. The conclusion does not support the claim made. Argument is incoherent and uses noncredible sources.Sufficient justification of claims is lacking. Argument lacks consistent unity. There are obvious flaws in the logic. Some sources have questionable credibility.Argument is orderly, but may have a few inconsistencies. The argument presents minimal justification of claims. Argument logically, but not thoroughly, supports the purpose. Sources used are credible. Introduction and conclusion bracket the thesis. Argument shows logical progressions. Techniques of argumentation are evident. There is a smooth progression of claims from introduction to conclusion. Most sources are authoritative.Clear and convincing argument that presents a persuasive claim in a distinctive and compelling manner. All sources are authoritative.15.0 %Organization and Effectiveness 5.0 %Mechanics of Writing (includes spelling, punctuation, grammar, language use)Surface errors are pervasive enough that they impede communication of meaning. Inappropriate word choice or sentence construction is used.Frequent and repetitive mechanical errors distract the reader. Inconsistencies in language choice (register), sentence structure, or word choice are present.Some mechanical errors or typos are present, but they are not overly distracting to the reader. Correct sentence structure and audience-appropriate language are used. Prose is largely free of mechanical errors, although a few may be present. A variety of sentence structures and effective figures of speech are used. Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English.5.0 %Format2.0 %Paper Format (use of appropriate style for the major and assignment)Template is not used appropriately or documentation format is rarely followed correctly.Template is used, but some elements are missing or mistaken; lack of control with formatting is apparent.Template is used, and formatting is correct, although some minor errors may be present. Template is fully used; There are virtually no errors in formatting style.All format elements are correct. 3.0 %Documentation of Sources (citations, footnotes, references, bibliography, etc., as appropriate to assignment and style)Sources are not documented.Documentation of sources is inconsistent or incorrect, as appropriate to assignment and style, with numerous formatting errors.Sources are documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, although some formatting errors may be present.Sources are documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is mostly correct. Sources are completely and correctly documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is free of error.100 %Total Weightage